Full Text
EXTRAORDINARY
PART 1—Section III
PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY
No. 04] NEW DELHI, WEDNESDAY, DECEMBER 27, 2023/PAUS HA 6 , 194 5
CG-DL-E-30122023-250988
20+01 दिन 30
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
20+01 दिन 30
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.8 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4
164 48.4 59.2 61.9 64.6 67.2
165 49.0 59.9 62.6 65.3 68.1
166 49.6 60.6 63.4 66.1 68.9
167 50.2 61.4 64.1 66.9 69.7
168 50.8 62.1 64.9 67.7 70.6
169 51.4 62.8 65.7 68.5 71.4
170 52.0 63.6 66.5 69.4 72.3
171 52.6 64.3 67.3 70.2 73.1
172 53.3 65.1 68.0 71.0 74.0
173 53.9 65.8 68.8 71.8 74.8
174 54.5 66.6 69.6 72.7 75.7
175 55.1 67.4 70.4 73.5 76.6
20+01 दिन 30
176 55.8 68.1 71.2 74.3 77.4
177 56.4 68.9 72.1 75.2 78.3
178 57.0 69.7 72.9 76.0 79.2
179 57.7 70.5 73.7 76.9 80.1
180 58.3 71.3 74.5 77.8 81.0
181 59.0 72.1 75.4 78.6 81.9
182 59.6 72.9 76.2 79.5 82.8
183 60.3 73.7 77.0 80.4 83.7
184 60.9 74.5 77.9 81.3 84.6
185 61.6 75.3 78.7 82.1 85.6
186 62.3 76.1 79.6 83.0 86.5
187 62.9 76.9 80.4 83.9 87.4
188 63.6 77.8 81.3 84.8 88.4
189 64.3 78.6 82.2 85.7 89.3
190 65.0 79.4 83.0 86.6 90.3
191 65.7 80.3 83.9 87.6 91.2
192 66.4 81.1 84.8 88.5 92.2
193 67.0 81.9 85.7 89.4 93.1
194 67.7 82.8 86.6 90.3 94.1
195 68.4 83.7 87.5 91.3 95.1
196 69.1 84.5 88.4 92.2 96.0
197 69.9 85.4 89.3 93.1 97.0
198 70.6 86.2 90.2 94.1 98.0
199 71.3 87.1 91.1 95.0 99.0
200 72.0 88.0 92.0 96.0 100.0
201 72.7 88.9 92.9 97.0 101.0
202 73.4 89.8 93.8 97.9 102.0
203 74.2 90.7 94.8 98.9 103.0
204 74.9 91.6 95.7 99.9 104.0
20+01 दिन 30
205 75.6 92.5 96.7 100.9 105.1
206 76.4 93.4 97.6 101.8 106.1
207 77.1 94.3 98.6 102.8 107.1
208 77.9 95.2 99.5 103.8 108.2
209 78.6 96.1 100.5 104.8 109.2
210 79.4 97.0 101.4 105.8 110.3
1.47 37 45 40 45 40 48 40 50 40 52
1.48 37 46 41 46 41 48 41 50 41 53
1.49 38 47 41 47 41 49 41 51 41 53
1.5 38 47 42 47 42 50 42 52 42 54
1.51 39 48 42 48 42 50 42 52 42 55
1.52 39 49 43 49 43 51 43 53 43 55
1.53 40 49 43 49 43 51 43 54 43 56
1.54 40 50 44 50 44 52 44 55 44 57
1.55 41 50 44 50 44 53 44 55 44 58
1.56 41 51 45 51 45 54 45 56 45 58
1.57 42 52 46 52 46 54 46 57 46 59
1.58 42 52 46 52 46 55 46 57 46 60
1.59 43 53 47 53 47 56 47 58 47 61
1.6 44 54 47 54 47 56 47 59 47 61
1.61 44 54 48 54 48 57 48 60 48 62
1.62 45 55 49 55 49 58 49 60 49 63
1.63 45 56 49 56 49 58 49 61 49 64
1.64 46 56 50 56 50 59 50 62 50 65
1.65 46 57 50 57 50 60 50 63 50 65
1.66 47 58 51 58 51 61 51 63 51 66
1.67 47 59 52 59 52 61 52 64 52 67
1.68 48 59 52 59 52 62 52 65 52 68
1.69 49 60 53 60 53 63 53 66 53 69
1.7 49 61 53 61 53 64 53 66 53 69
1.71 50 61 54 61 54 64 54 67 54 70
1.72 50 62 55 62 55 65 55 68 55 71
1.73 51 63 55 63 55 66 55 69 55 72
1.74 51 64 56 64 56 67 56 70 56 73
1.75 52 64 57 64 57 67 57 70 57 74
1.76 53 65 57 65 57 68 57 71 57 74
1.77 53 66 58 66 58 69 58 72 58 75
1.78 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 73 59 76
1.79 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 74 59 77
1.8 55 68 60 68 60 71 60 75 60 78
1.81 56 69 61 69 61 72 61 75 61 79
1.82 56 70 61 70 61 73 61 76 61 79
1.83 57 70 62 70 62 74 62 77 62 80
1.84 58 71 63 71 63 74 63 78 63 81
1.85 58 72 63 72 63 75 63 79 63 82
1.86 59 73 64 73 64 76 64 80 64 83
1.87 59 73 65 73 65 77 65 80 65 84
1.88 60 74 65 74 65 78 65 81 65 85
1.89 61 75 66 75 66 79 66 82 66 86
1.9 61 76 67 76 67 79 67 83 67 87
1.91 62 77 67 77 67 80 67 84 67 88
1.92 63 77 68 77 68 81 68 85 68 88
1.93 63 78 69 78 69 82 69 86 69 89
1.94 64 79 70 79 70 83 70 87 70 90
1.95 65 80 70 80 70 84 70 87 70 91
(v) Complex Sy ndactyly . अनदफट
(viii) Healed Fractures .
है, की soft tissue involvement, crush component, alignment, mal -union/ non -union
(ix) Cubitus Valgus .
acromion के cranial surface के lateral border के humerus के lateral और medial
epicondyles के midpoint से distal radial और ulnar styloid processes के midpoint द्वारा
(iv) Distal neurovascular deficit
(कक) Mild ptosis
(कख) Clear visual axis
(कग) Normal visual field
(ii) Exotropia. अनदफट
(iv) Heterochromia Iridum . अनदफट
retina में जबना दकसी observed pathology के pupillary reflexes
(vi) Pseudophakia. अनदफट
(vii) Lenticular Opacities . Lenticular opacity की ििह से कोई Visual deterioration,
small stationary lenti cular opacities िैसे congenital blue dot cataract, जिससे visual
(viii) Optic Nerve Drusen . अनदफट
(x) Keratoconus . अनदफट
(xi) Lattice .
cirumferential lattice.
lattices.
(iii) Radial lattices.
(iv) Atrophic hole/ flap tears (Unlasered) के सार् कोई lattice.
(v) posterior से equator तक Lattice degenerations.
circumferential lattice.
circumferential lattices.
Laser delimitation single circumferential lattice.
Post Laser delimitation two circumferential lattices.
(कक) Residual Perforation
(कख) Free Field Hearing जहयटरंग तर्ा/या PTA ीर Residual Hearing Loss
जमडल ईयर सियरी (Ossiculoplasty, Stapedotomy,canal wall down
mastoidec tomy, atticotomy, atticoantrostomy आदि)
implant, middle ear implants सजहत आदि)
नोट - Septal Deformity. Nasal septal perforation, anterior cartilaginous या posterior bony
(i) Nasal polyposis . इसे polyposis (CRSWNP) सजहत Chronic Rhinosinusitis भी कहा िाता है।
(कख) Calyecdasis
(कग) Bladder Diverticulum
20. लैब िांच ( Hemato9logy ).
से.मी. में 15-17 18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37
152 46 47 50 54 54
153 47 47 51 55 55
154 47 48 51 56 56
155 48 49 52 56 56
156 48 49 53 57 57
157 49 50 54 58 58
158 49 50 54 58 58
159 50 51 55 59 59
160 51 52 56 59 60
161 51 52 56 60 60
162 52 53 57 61 61
163 52 54 58 61 62
164 53 54 59 62 63
165 53 55 59 63 63
166 54 56 60 63 64
167 54 56 61 64 65
168 55 57 61 65 65
169 55 57 62 65 66
170 56 58 63 66 67
171 56 59 64 66 68
172 57 59 64 67 68
173 58 60 65 68 69
174 58 61 66 68 70
175 59 61 66 69 71
176 59 62 67 70 71
177 60 62 68 70 72
178 60 63 69 71 73
से.मी. में 15-17 18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37
179 61 64 69 72 73
180 61 64 70 72 74
181 62 65 71 73 75
182 62 66 72 74 76
183 63 66 72 74 76
184 64 67 73 75 77
185 64 68 74 75 78
186 65 68 74 76 78
187 65 69 75 77 79
188 66 69 76 77 80
189 66 70 77 78 81
190 67 71 77 79 81
191 67 71 78 79 82
192 68 72 79 80 82
193 68 73 79 81 83
SD 6.0 6.3 7.1 6.6 6.9
आयु (िषों में) 17-20 21-25 26-30 31-35 36-40 41-45
समंिन (सेमी में) 10-11 11-12 12.5-13.5 14-16 16-18.5 18.5-27
नाम, आद्याक्षर सजहत ............................................. .............. बैच सं 0................ .....................................
www.joinindiannavy.gov.in ीर िाएं।
www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in ीर िाएं।
कनयल लेिल 13 1,30,600 - 2,15,900
योग 3750.00 रु.
योग 2340 रूीए
MINISTRY OF DEFENCE
(Department of Military Affairs)
NOTIFICATION
New Delhi, the 20th December, 2023
RULES
S.L. No. B/59111/IMA -158(DE)/Rtg ‘A’/CDSE/16(2)/2023 -DMA(AG -II).—Combined Defence Services
Examination (I), 2024 will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 21st April 2024.
Name of the Course Approximate No. of Vacancies
(a) Indian Military Academy, Dehradun — 158th (DE) Course
Commencing in January, 2025. 100 [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate
(Army Wing) h olders].
(b) Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala — Course Commencing
in January, 2025 Executive Branch (General Service)/Hydro. 32 [including 06 vacancies for NCC‘C’ Certificate (Naval Wing)
holders]
(c) Air Force Academy, Hyderabad — (Pre-Flying) Training
Cour se Commencing in January, 2025 i.e. 217 F(P) Course. 32 [including 03 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Air
Wing) holders through NCC Special Entry].
(d) Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) 121st SSC
(Men) (NT) (UPSC) Course Commencing in April, 2025. 275
(e) Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) 35th SSC
Women (NT) (UPSC) Course Commencing in April, 2025. 18
NOTE (i) The Indian Army publishes vacancies for Men and Women separately for various entries keeping into
account the o perational and administrative needs of the Force as envisaged in the existing and future scenarios.
Though the vacancies for Men and Women categories for SSC(NT) Courses are being notified through a common
Notification, the selection for both these categor ies are done in a gender pure manner wherein Men & Women are
tested separately. The preparation of final merit lists for both these categories are also done separately and in a gender
pure manner.
NOTE (ii): The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the
Commission.
NOTE (iii): The above number of vacancies is tentative and may be changed at any stage by Services H. Q.
N.B. (I) (a): A candidate is required to specify clearly in respective column of th e Online Application the Services for
which he/she wishes to be considered in the order of his/her preference. A male candidate is advised to indicate as
many preferences as he wishes to, subject to the condition given at paras (b) and (c) below, so that h aving regard to his
rank in the order of merit due consideration can be given to his preferences when making appointment.
Since women candidates are eligible for OTA only, they should give OTA as their first and only preference.
(b) (i) : If a male candida te is competing for Short Service Commission (Army) only, he should indicate OTA as
the one and only choice. However, a male candidate competing for Short Service Commission Course at OTA as
well as Permanent Commission course at IMA, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy should indicate
OTA as his last preference, otherwise OTA will be deemed to be the last choice even if it is given a higher
preference by the candidate.
(b) (ii) : Women candidates are being considered only for Short Service Commissio n at OTA. They should indicate
OTA as the only choice.
(c) Candidates who desire to join Air Force Academy must indicate AFA as first choice, as they have to be
administered Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or and AF Medicals at Central Establi shment/Institute
of Aviation Medicines. Choice exercised for AFA as second/third etc. will be treated as invalid.
(d) Candidates should note that, except as provided in N.B. (II) below, they will be considered for appointment to
those courses only for whic h they exercise their preference and for no other course(s).
(e) No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his/her application will
be entertained after the expiry of a time period, if any, as may be indicat ed by the Commission, at its discretion, in its
Notice for the Examination. Thereafter, no change of choice will be allowed. Second choice will come for
consideration only when the first choice is not offered to the candidate by Services HQ. When first cho ice is offered
and a candidate declines the same, his/her candidature will be cancelled for all other choices for regular Commission.
N.B. (II) The left -over candidates of IMA/Indian Naval Academy/Air Force Academy courses viz., those who have
been recomme nded by the Union Public Service Commission for grant of Permanent Commission on the basis of the
final results of this Examination, but who could not be inducted in these courses for any reason whatsoever may be
considered for grant of SSC even if they ha ve not indicated their choice for this course in their applications, if they are
subsequently willing to be considered for this course subject to the following conditions :
(i) There is a shortfall after detailing all the candidates who competed for the SS C Course; and
(ii) The candidates who are detailed for training even though they have not expressed their preference for SSC will
be placed in the order of Merit List after the last candidate who had opted for this Course, as these candidates will
be getti ng admission to the Course to which they are not entitled according to the preference expressed by them.
(iii) Candidates with Air Force as first and only choice cannot be considered as left -over for grant of SSC (OTA) if
they fail in Computer Pilot Selec tion System (CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test. Such candidates, if they
desire to be considered for SSC (OTA) should exercise their option for OTA also.
NOTE 1 : NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders may als o compete for
the vacancies in the Short Service Commission Course but since there is no reservation of vacancies for them in this
course, they will be treated as general candidates for the purpose of filling up vacancies in this cours e. Candidates who
have yet to pass NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing(Senior Division)/Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination, but are
otherwise eligible to compete for the reserved vacancies, may also apply but they will be required to submit the proof
of passing t he NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing(Senior Division)/Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination to reach the
IHQ of MoD (Army)/DteGen of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry for SSC male candidates and SSC women entry for female
candidates West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi -110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of
MOD (Navy) DMPR, (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi -110 011 in case of Navy
first choice candidates and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi -110001. Phone No.
23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by 13th November, 2024. To be eligible to
compete for reserved vacancies the candidates should have served for not less than 3 academic years in the Senior
Division Army W ing/ Air Wing/ Naval Wing of National Cadet Corps and should not have been discharged from the
NCC for more than 24 months for IMA/Indian Naval Academy/Air Force Academy courses on the last date of receipt
of Application in the Commission’s Office.
NOTE 2: In the event of sufficient number of qualified NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing(Senior Division)/Air
Wing/Naval Wing) holders not becoming available on the results of the examination to fill all the vacancies reserved
for them in the Indian Military Academy Course/Air Force Academy Course/Indian Naval Academy Course, the
unfilled reserved vacancies shall be treated as unreserved and filled by general candidates. Admission to the above
courses will be made on the results of the written examination to be cond ucted by the Commission followed by
intelligence and personality test by the Services Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written examination.
The details regarding the (a) scheme, standard, syllabus of the examination, (b) Guidelines with reg ard to physical
standards for admission to the Academy and (c) Brief particulars of services etc. for candidates joining the Indian
Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy are given in
Appendices I, II and I II respectively.
2. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIB ILITY:
(a) Nationality: A candidate must be unmarried and must either be: -
(i) a Citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of
Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the
intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of
eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
A candidate in whose case a certificat e of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination provisionally
subject to the necessary certificate being given to him/her by the Govt. before declaration of result by UPSC.
(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status:
(i) For IMA —Unmarried mal e candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 2001 and not later than 1st
January, 2006 only are eligible.
(ii) For Indian Naval Academy —Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 2001 and not later
than 1stJanuary, 2006 only are eligible.
(iii) For Air Force Academy —
Age: 20 to 24 years as on 01st January, 2025 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January, 2001 and not later than 01
January, 2005 Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issue d by DGCA
(India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 02nd January, 1999 and not later than 01st January, 2005)
only are eligible.
Note : Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Marri ed
candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided
married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises.
(iv) For Officers' Training Academy —(SSC Course for men) Unmarried m ale candidate born not earlier than 02nd
January, 2000 and not later than 01st January 2006 only are eligible.
(v) For Officers' Training Academy —(SSC Women Non -Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless widows
who have not remarried and issueless divorc ees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are
eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 02nd January, 2000 and not later than 01st January 2006.
NOTE: Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male fo r the purpose of their admission
in IMA/INA/AFA/OTA, Chennai courses and accordingly they are not eligible for these courses.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination
certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from
a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of
the University or in the Matriculation/Se condary School Examination certificate or an equivalent examination
certificate. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part
of the examination. No other document relating to age like horosco pes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal
Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted.
The expression Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the
alternative certificates mentioned above.
Sometimes the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate does not show the date of birth, or only
shows the age by completed years or completed years and months. In such cases a candidate must send in addition
to the self -attested/certi fied copy of Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate a self -
attested/certified copy of a certificate from the Headmaster/Principal of the Institution from where he/she passed
the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination showing the date of his/her birth or exact age as recorded in the
Admission Register of the Institution.
NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary School
Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the d ate of submission of applications will be accepted by
the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by them and entered in the
records o f the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed
subsequently or at a subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.
Provided that in case of an inadvertent/unintentional/typographical error committed by a candid ate in indicating the
date of birth in the Online Application Form, the candidate may make a request to the Commission for subsequent
rectification along with supporting documents, as specified in the 2(b) of the Examination rule and the request may
be con sidered by the Commission if the same is made within a definite time frame as may be notified by the
Commission in its Notice for the examination.
NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth. If on verification at an y
subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or
equivalent examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the
Rules.
(c) Educational Qualificat ions:
(i) For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai — Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
(ii) For Indian Naval Academy —Degree in Engineering from recognized University/Institution.
(iii) For Air Force Academy —Degree of a recognised Un iversity (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or
Bachelor of Engineering.
Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of Graduation/ provisional certificates on
the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.
Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the final year degree
examination can also apply provided candidate should not have any present backlog upto the last semester / year
for which results have been declar ed upto the time of submission of application and they will be required to submit
proof of passing the degree examination at the time of commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army),
Rtg ‘A’,CDSE Entry, West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi -11006 6 in case of IMA/SSC first choice
candidates, Naval HQ ‘DMPR’ (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi -110011 in
case of Navy first choice candidates and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi -110001.
Phone No. 2 3010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by the following dates
failing which their candidature will stand cancelled:
(i) For admission to IMA on or before 01st January, 2025 Indian Naval Academy on or before 01st
January, 2025 and Air Force Academy on or before 13th November 2024.
(ii) For admission to Officers' Training Academy, Chennai on or before 01st April, 2025.
Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recogn ised by government as
equivalent to professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission to the examination.
In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the qualifications
prescribed in this rul e as educationally qualified provided that he/she possesses qualifications, the standard of
which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to the examination.
NOTE I :Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be el igible only if they are studying in
the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree
Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession
given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by the prescribed date and no
request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University
Examination, delay in declaratio n of results or any other ground whatsoever. Candidates who are studying in the
final year/semester degree course are required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued
by University/College stating that they will be able to sub mit their proof of passing the graduation degree
examination by the specified date, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE II: Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of commission in the
Defence Servic es shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be
cancelled.
NOTE III: In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to learn flying,
they would be absorbed in the N avigation/Ground Duty (Non Tech) Branches of the IAF. This will be subject to
availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements.
(d) Physical Standards:
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for adm ission to Combined Defence Services
Examination (I) 2024 as per guidelines given in Appendix -II.
3. FEE :
Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee
as prescribed in the Commission’s Examin ation Notice.
4. All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the Armed Forces,
Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organizations or in private employment should submit
their applications online direct to the Commission.
N.B.I: Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged
employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are, however,
required to inform their Head of Office/Department in writing that they have applied for the Examination.
N.B.II: Candidates serving in the Armed Forces are required to inform their Commanding Officer in writing that they
have applied for this examination. They ar e also required to submit NOC in this regard at the time of SSB interview.
Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission
withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examinat ion, their applications will be liable to
be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.
5. The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the examination
shall be final.
The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for
admission to the examination. Their admission to all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject
to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility condi tions. If on verification at any time before or after any stage of the
examination, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions their candidature will be cancelled by
the Commission.
Candidates are advised to keep ready the follow ing documents in original alongwith their self - attested copies
soon after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination which is likely to be declared in the
month of May 2024 for submission to the Army HQ/Naval HQ/Air HQ as the cas e may be:
(1) Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination Certificate or its equivalent showing date of birth (2)
Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/ Marks sheet showing clearly having passed degree examination and eligible for
award of degree.
In the fi rst instance all qualified candidates eligible for SSB interview will carry their original Matriculation/
Secondary School Examination Certificate as also their Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/Marks sheet with them
while going to the Services Selecti on Centres for SSB interview. Candidates who have not yet qualified the final year
Degree examination must carry with them a certificate in original from the Principal of the College/Institution stating
that the candidate has appeared/is appearing at the f inal year Degree examination. Candidates who do not carry the
above certificates with them while going to the Services Selection Centres shall not be allowed to appear for the SSB
interview. No relaxation for production of the above certificates in origina l at the selection Centre is allowed, and
candidates who do not carry with them any of these certificates in original will not be permitted to appear for their
SSB test and interview and they will be sent back home at their own expense.
6. No candidate wil l be admitted to the examination unless he holds a certificate of admission for the examination.
7. (1) If any of their claims is found to be incorrect/false/fraud/fabricated they may render themselves liable to
disciplinary action by the Commission in ter ms of the following provisions:
A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of: —
(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely : —
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the
examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampere d with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photos/signature in the application form in place of actual
photo/signature.
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely : -
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means;
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination;
(iii) influencing the exami ners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, pr ovoking fellow examinees to
boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of
the examination; or
(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched -off mode), pager or any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or
Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched off mode)
capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or
(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting
them to take the examination; or
(n) attempting to c ommit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in
the foregoing clauses;
in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the Commission from the
Examination held under these Rules; an d/or shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a
specified period : -
(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;
and shall be liable to face disciplina ry action under the appropriate rules if already in service under
Government.
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after: —
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate may
wish to make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed for this
purpose, into consideration.
(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in committing or
abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at Clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to action in
terms of the Clause (n).
8.The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per age and e ducational
qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by the candidates.
The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the
information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions.
Candidates must ensure that their e -mail IDs given in their applications are valid and active.
9. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE ARMY/NAVAL/AIR HEAD QUARTERS.
All communications to the Army Headquar ters should invariably contain the following particulars.
1. Name and year of the examination.
2. Registration ID (RID)
3. Roll Number (if received)
4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters)
5. Complete Postal Address as given in the applica tion with telephone number, if any.
N.B. (i) Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to.
N.B. (ii) If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has been held and it does not
give his/her full n ame and Roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be taken thereon.
N.B. (iii) Candidates recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection Board who have
changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their applicatio n for the examination should immediately
after announcement of the result of the written part of the examination notify the changed address, along with an
unstamped self -addressed envelope, also to IHQ of MoD (Army)/Dte Gen of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry Sectio n for
males and SSC Women Entry Section for women candidates, West Block -III, Ground Floor, Wing 1, Rama Krishna
Puram, New Delhi -110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of MOD(Navy) DMPR (OI&R
Section), Room No. 204, 'C' Wing, Sena Bhaw an, New Delhi -110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates, and Dte
of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi -110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/ 7610 in case
of Air Force first choice candidates. Failure to comply with this instructi on will deprive the candidate of any claim to
consideration in the event of his/her not receiving the summon letter for interview by the Services Selection Board.
For all queries regarding allotment of centres, date of SSB interview, merit list, Joining In structions, and any other
relevant information regarding selection process, please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in in case of candidates
having IMA or OTA as t heir first choice, IHQ of MOD (NAVY)DMPR (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, 'C' Wing,
Sena Bhawan, New Delhi -110011 in the case of candidates having Navy as first choice and Dte of Personnel (Offrs),
Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi -110001. Phone No. 23010231 Ex tn. 7645/7646/7610 in the case of candidates
having Air Force as first choice.
Candidates are requested to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to them in the call up letter for
interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be considered in very genuine circumstances and that too if it
is administratively convenient for which Army headquarters/Naval HQ /Air Headquarter will be the sole deciding
authority. Such requests should be sent to Selection Centre/SSB from where the call for SSB int erview has been
received. Navy candidates can download their call letters from the naval website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in or send
email at [email protected] three weeks after publication of results.
N.B. In case a candidate does not get the interview call for SSB interview for IMA by 2nd week of July, 2024 and by
02nd week of October, 2024 for OTA, he/she should write to IHQ of MoD(Army)/Rtg. CDSE Entry/SSC Women
Entry for Officers Training Academy, West Block -III, Ramakrishna Puram, New Delhi -110066 regarding non -receipt
of the call -up letter. For similar query by the Navy/Air Force candidates , having first choice as given ibid, should
write to Naval Hqrs. or Air Hqrs. as mentioned in N.B. III (in case of non -receipt of call by 4th week of August 2024).
10. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF
QUALIFIED CANDIDA TES, ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO THE
TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES.
The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks
in the written examination as fixed by the Commission in their discretion. Candidates who are declared successful in
the written exam will be detailed for intelligence and personality test at the Service Selection Board based on their
preference by the respective service HQ. CANDIDATES WHO QUALIFY IN THE WRITTEN EXAM AND GIVEN
THEIR FIRST CHOICE AS ARMY (IMA/OTA) ARE REQUIRED TO REGISTER THEMSELVES ON THE
RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE WWW.JOININDIANARMY. NIC.IN IN ORDER TO ENABLE THEM
TO RECEIVE CALL UP INFORMATION FOR SSB INTERVIEW.THOSE CANDIDATES WHO HAVE
ALREADY REGISTERED ON THE RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE ARE ADVISED NOT TO
REGISTER AGAIN. The email ID registered with DG Recruiting website i.e. www.joinindianarmy.nic.in and that
given to UPSC must be same and unique to the applicant. Results of the test conducted by Service Selection Board
will hold good for all the courses [i.e. Indian Military Academy (DE) Course, Dehradun, Indian Naval Academy,
Ezhimala Course, Air Force Academy (Pre -Flying) Course, Hyderabad and SSC (NT) Course at OTA, Chennai] for
which the candidate has qualified in the written exam, irr espective of the service HQ conducting it. Two -stage
selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and intelligence Test has been introduced at Service
Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage one test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres. Only
those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests and all those who fail to
pass stage one, will be returned. Only those candidate who qualify at stage two will be required to submit p hotocopy
each of: —(i) Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Bachelors Degree/Provisional
Degree alongwith mark sheets of all the years/semesters in support of educational qualification.
Candidates will appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there at their own risk and will not be
entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which they may sustain in
the course of or as a result of any of the test s given to them at the Services Selection Board whether due to the
negligence of any person or otherwise. Candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect on the form
appended to the application.
To be acceptable, candidates should secure t he minimum qualifying marks separately in (i) written examination
and (ii) SSB test as fixed by the Commission and Service Selection Board respectively in their discretion. The
candidates will be placed in the order of merit on the basis of the total marks secured by them in the written
examination and in the SSB tests. The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to
individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not enter into
correspondence with them regarding the result.
Success at the examination confers no right of admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy,
Air Force Academy or the Officers' Training Academy as the case may be. The final selection will be made in order of
merit subject to medical fitness and suitability in all other respects and number of vacancies available.
NOTE: Every candidate for the Air Force and Naval Aviation is given Pilot Aptitude Test only once. The Grade
secured by him at the f irst test (CPSS and/or PABT) will therefore hold good for every subsequent interview at the Air
Force Selection Board. Those who have failed Indian Navy Selection Board/Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS)
and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test earlier and t hose who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force.
TEST/INTERVIEW AT AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARDS FOR THOSE CANDIDATES WHO APPLY FOR
AIR FORCE THROUGH MORE THAN ONE SOURCE: - There are three modes of entry in F(P) course
CDSE/NCC/AFCAT. Candi dates who fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) will be considered for other
preferred services only if it is found that they have applied through CDS Exam. Candidates who qualify in the written
examination for IMA(D.E) Course and/or Navy (S.E) Co urse and / or Air Force Academy course irrespective of
whether they have also qualified for SSC Course or not will be detailed for SSB test in August -September, 2024 and
candidates who qualify for SSC Course only will be detailed for SSB tests in October t o December, 2024.
11. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRA INING COURSE:
Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy, Indian Military Academy,
Air Force Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai but were removed there from on
disciplinary ground will not be considered for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air
Force Academy or for grant of Short Service Commission in the Army.
Candidates who were previously wit hdrawn from the Indian Military Academy for lack of Officer -like qualities will
not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.
Candidates who were previously selected as Special Entry Naval Cadets but were withdrawn from the National
Defence Academy or f rom Naval Training Establishments for lack of Officer -like qualities will not be eligible for
admission to the Indian Navy.
Candidates who were withdrawn from Indian Military Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, NCC and Graduate
course for lack of Officer -like qualities will not be considered for grant of Short Service Commission in the Army.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the NCC and Graduates’ course for lack of Officer -like qualities
will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.
12. RESTRICTIONS ON MARR IAGE DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITA RY ACADEMY
OR IN THE INDIAN NAV AL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY OR OFFICERS
TRAINING ACADEMY, CH ENNAI:
Candidates for the Indian Military Academy Course or Naval Academy Course or Indian Air Force Academy
Course or Officers' Training Academy, Chennai must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A
candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his/her application though successful at this or any subsequent
examinat ion will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will be
liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him/her by the Government.
Candidate must undertake not to marry until they complete their full trai ning. A candidate who marries subsequent
to the date of his application, though successful at the written examination or Service Selection Board interview of
medical examination will not be eligible for training. A candidate, who marries during his period, shall be discharged
and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the Government.
13. OTHER RESTRICTIONS D URING TRAINING IN TH E INDIAN MILITARY AC ADEMY OR IN
THE INDIAN NAVAL ACA DEMY OR IN THE AIR F ORCE ACADEMY:
After admission to the I ndian Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy,
candidates will not be considered for any other commission. They will also not be permitted to appear for any
interview or examination after they have been finally selected for tr aining in the Indian Military Academy or the
Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy.
MAJOR GENERAL G. S. CHOUDHRY, Jt. Sec y. (Army & TA)
APPENDIX -I
The scheme, standard and syllabus of the examination
A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
1. The Competitive exa mination comprises:
(a) Written examination as shown in para 2 below.
(b) Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part ‘B’ of this Appendix) of such candidates as may be
called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres.
2. The su bjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be
as follows:
(a) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy: —
Subject Duration Maximum
Marks
1. English 2 Hours 100
2. General Knowledge 2 Hours 100
3. Elementary Mathematics 2 Hours 100
(b) For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy: —
Subject Duration Maximum
Marks
1. English 2 Hours 100
2. General Knowledge 2 Hours 100
The maxim um marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for each course i.e. the
maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be 300, 300, 300 and 200 each for
admission to the Indian Military Academ y, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training
Academy respectively.
3. The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers (Test Booklets) of
General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics wil l be set bilingually in Hindi as well as English.
4. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only
will be set.
5. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to
write answers for them.
6. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
7. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type pap ers (Test Booklets). They should
not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
B. STANDARD AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
STANDARD
The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard of papers in
other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University.
SYLLABUS
ENGLISH (Code No. 01)
The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of
words.
GENERAL KN OWLEDGE (Code No. 02)
General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and
experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of
any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on History of India and Geography of a nature which
candidate should be able to answer without special study.
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 03)
ARITHMETIC
Number System —Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations, addition,
substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time and distance, time and
work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation.
Elementary Number Theory —Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5,
9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M. Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base
10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables.
ALGEBRA
Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions ofquadratic
equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be consider ed). Simultaneous linear equations
in two unknowns —analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their
solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic
equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional
identities, Laws of indices.
TRIGONOMETRY
Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° <× < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90°
Simple trigonometric identities.
Use of trigonometric tables.
Simple cases of heights and distances.
GEOMETRY
Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii)
Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and
altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its
properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci.
MENSURATION
Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these
figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and
cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.
STATISTICS
Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts,
pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.
INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the
stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are: -
(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating ( OIR) tests are Picture Perception * Description Test (PP&DT).
The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conferen ce. These tests
are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in .
The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO),
Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The marks are
allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance o f the candidate holistically in all the test. In
addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three
techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.
The various tests of IO , GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities
and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.
APPENDIX -II
GUIDELINES WITH REGARD TO PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR CANDIDATES FOR COMBINED
DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION
ARMY
MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION
FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO ARMY
1. Aim:
Aim of this literature is to familiarize the general population on medical standards for enrolment of
candidates into Army through various types of entries. This literature also serves the purpose of placing
information in public domain as per the policy of Information Commission under RTI Act -2005
2. Introduction :
(a) The primary responsibility of t he Armed Forces is defending territorial integrity of the nation. For this
purpose Armed Forces should always be prepared for war. Armed Forces personnel undergo rigorous
training in preparation for war. Armed Forces also assist civil authorities if requir ed whenever the need arises
like in the case of disasters. To carry out such tasks Armed Forces requires candidates with robust mental
and physical health. Such candidates should also be capable of withstanding rigorous stress and strain of
service condit ions to perform their military duties in adverse terrain and uncongenial climate incl sea and air,
in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical facilities. A medically unfit individual due to
disease/disability can not only drain precious resour ces but can also jeopardize lives of other members of the
team during operations. Therefore only medically fit candidates are selected who emerge fit to be trained for
war.
(b) The Armed Forces Medical Services are responsible for ensuring selection of ‘ Medically Fit’
individuals into the Armed Forces.
(c) All Armed Forces personnel regardless of occupational specialty, unit assignment, age or gender should
have a basic level of general ‘ Medical fitness’ when inducted into service. This basic level of fi tness can
then be used as a benchmark to train personnel for further physically demanding occupational specialties or
unit assignments. This will enhance deployable combat readiness.
(d) Medical examinations are carried out meticulously by Armed Forces M edical Services Medical Officers.
These Medical Officers are well oriented to specific working conditions of Armed Forces after undergoing
basic military training. Medical examinations are finalized by the Board of Medical Officers. The decision of
the Med ical Board is final. In case of any doubt about any disease/disability/injury/genetic disorder etc
noticed during enrolment/ commissioning, the benefit of doubt will be given to State .
Medical Standards .
3. Medical standards described in the following par agraphs are general guidelines. They are not exhaustive in view
of the vast knowledge of disease. These standards are subject to change with advancement in the scientific knowledge
and change in working conditions of Armed Forces due to introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes will be
promulgated from time to time by policy letters by competent authorities. Medical Officers, Spl Medical Officers and
Medical Boards will take appropriate decisions based on following guidelines and principles.
4. To be d eemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any
disease/syndrome/disability likely to interfere with the efficient performance of military duties in any terrain,
climate, season incl sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical aid. Candidate also
should be free of medical conditions which require frequent visit to medical facilities and use of any aid / drugs.
(a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health. There should be no evidence of weak
constitution, imperfect development of any system, any congenital deformities/ diseases/syndrome or
malformation.
(b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s anywhere on the body. No sinus/es or
fistula/e anywhere on the body.
(c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other disease/syndrome/disability of the skin.
(d) No hernia anywhere on the body.
(e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause significant disfigurement.
(f) No arterio -venous malformation anywhere in/on the body.
(g) No malformation of the head and face including asymmetry, deformity from fracture or depression of the
bones of the skull; or scars indicating old operative interference and malformation like sinuses and fistulae
etc.
(h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and field of vision.
(j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears vestibule -cochlear system.
(k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology.
(l) No disease/disability/ c ongenital anomaly/syndrome of the bones or cartilages of the nose, or palate,
nasal polyps or disease of the naso -Pharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses. There should be no nasal deformity
and no features of chronic tonsillitis.
(m) No disease /syndrome/di sability of the throat, palate tonsils or gums or any disease or injury affecting the
normal function of either mandibular joint.
(n) No disease /syndrome/disability of the heart and blood vessels incl congenital, genetic, organic incl
hypertension, and c onduction disorders.
(o) No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of this disease or any other disease
/syndrome/disability chronic disease of the lungs and chest including allergies /immunological conditions,
connective tissue disorders, musculoskeletal deformities of chest.
(p) No disease of the digestive system including any abnormality of the liver, pancreas incl endocrinal,
congenital, hereditary or genetic diseases /syndromes and disabilities.
(q) No diseases/syndrome/disability o f any endocrinal system, reticuloendothelial system.
(r) No diseases/syndrome/disability of genito -urinary system including malformations, atrophy/hypertrophy
of any organ or gland.
(s) No active, latent or congenital venereal disease.
(t) No history or evidence of mental disease, epilepsy, incontinence of urine or enuresis.
(u) No disease/deformity/syndrome of musculo -skeletal system and joints incl skull, spine and limbs.
(v) There is no congenital or hereditary disease/ syndrome/disability.
5. Psychological examinations will be carried out during SSB selection procedure. However, any abnormal traits
noticed during medical examination will be a cause for rejection.
6. Based on the above mentioned guidelines usual medical conditions which lead to rejection are: -
(a) Musculo -skeletal deformities of spine, chest and pelvis, limbs e.g. scoliosis, torticollis, kyphosis,
deformities of vertebrae, ribs, sternum, clavicle, other bones of skeleton, mal -united fractures, deformed
limbs, fingers, toes and congenital deformities of spine.
(b) Deformities of Limbs: Deformed limbs, toes and fingers, deformed joints like cubitus valgus,
cubitusvarus, knock knees, bow legs, hyper mobile joints, amputated toes or fingers and shortened limbs.
(c) Vision and eye: Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, lesions of cornea, lens, retina, squint and ptosis.
(d) Hearing, ears, nose and throat: Sub standard hearing capability, lesions of pinna, tympanic membranes,
middle ear, deviated nasal septum, and congenital abn ormalities of lips, palate, peri -auricular sinuses and
lymphadenitis/adenopathy of neck. Hearing capacity should be 610 cm for Conversational Voice and Forced
Whispering for each ear.
(e) Dental conditions: -
(i) Incipient pathological conditions of th e jaws , which are known to be progressive or recurrent.
(ii) Significant jaw discrepancies between upper and lower jaw which may hamper efficient
mastication and/or speech will be a cause for rejection.
(iii) Symptomatic Temporo -Mandibular Joint clicking and tenderness. A mouth opening of less than
30 mm measured at the incisal edges, Dislocation of the TMJ on wide opening.
(iv) All potentially cancerous conditions.
(v) Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of mouth ope ning.
(vi) Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal pockets and/or bleeding
from gums.
(vii) Loose teeth: More than two mobile teeth will render the candidate unfit.
(viii) Cosmetic or post -traumatic maxillofacial surge ry/trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24
weeks from the date of surgery/injury whichever is later.
(ix) If malocclusion of teeth is hampering efficient mastication, maintenance of oral hygiene or
general nutrition or performance of duties efficiently .
(f) Chest: Tuberculosis, or evidence of tuberculosis, lesions of lungs, heart, musculo skeletal lesions of chest
wall.
(g) Abdomen and genitor -urinary system: Hernia, un -descended testis, varicocele, organomegaly, solitary
kidney, horseshoe kidney & cysts i n the kidney/liver, Gall bladder stones, renal and ureteric stones,
lesions/ deformities of urogenital organs, piles, sinuses and lymphadenitis/pathy.
(h) Nervous system: Tremors, speech impediment and imbalance.
(j) Skin: Vitiligo, haemangiomas, warts, corns, dermatitis, skin infections growths and hyperhydrosis.
7. Height and Weight : Height requirement varies as per the stream of entry. Weight should be proportionate to
height as per the chart given below: -
Age (yrs) Minimum weight
for all ages Age: 17 to
20 yrs Age: 20+01 day –
30 yrs Age: 30 + 01 day -
40 yrs Age: Above
40 yrs
Height (cm) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg)
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0
Age (yrs) Minimum weight
for all ages Age: 17 to
20 yrs Age: 20+01 day –
30 yrs Age: 30 + 01 day -
40 yrs Age: Above
40 yrs
Height (cm) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg)
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.8 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4
164 48.4 59.2 61.9 64.6 67.2
165 49.0 59.9 62.6 65.3 68.1
166 49.6 60.6 63.4 66.1 68.9
167 50.2 61.4 64.1 66.9 69.7
168 50.8 62.1 64.9 67.7 70.6
169 51.4 62.8 65.7 68.5 71.4
170 52.0 63.6 66.5 69.4 72.3
171 52.6 64.3 67.3 70.2 73.1
172 53.3 65.1 68.0 71.0 74.0
173 53.9 65.8 68.8 71.8 74.8
174 54.5 66.6 69.6 72.7 75.7
175 55.1 67.4 70.4 73.5 76.6
176 55.8 68.1 71.2 74.3 77.4
177 56.4 68.9 72.1 75.2 78.3
178 57.0 69.7 72.9 76.0 79.2
179 57.7 70.5 73.7 76.9 80.1
180 58.3 71.3 74.5 77.8 81.0
181 59.0 72.1 75.4 78.6 81.9
182 59.6 72.9 76.2 79.5 82.8
183 60.3 73.7 77.0 80.4 83.7
184 60.9 74.5 77.9 81.3 84.6
185 61.6 75.3 78.7 82.1 85.6
186 62.3 76.1 79.6 83.0 86.5
187 62.9 76.9 80.4 83.9 87.4
188 63.6 77.8 81.3 84.8 88.4
189 64.3 78.6 82.2 85.7 89.3
190 65.0 79.4 83.0 86.6 90.3
191 65.7 80.3 83.9 87.6 91.2
192 66.4 81.1 84.8 88.5 92.2
193 67.0 81.9 85.7 89.4 93.1
194 67.7 82.8 86.6 90.3 94.1
195 68.4 83.7 87.5 91.3 95.1
196 69.1 84.5 88.4 92.2 96.0
197 69.9 85.4 89.3 93.1 97.0
198 70.6 86.2 90.2 94.1 98.0
199 71.3 87.1 91.1 95.0 99.0
Age (yrs) Minimum weight
for all ages Age: 17 to
20 yrs Age: 20+01 day –
30 yrs Age: 30 + 01 day -
40 yrs Age: Above
40 yrs
Height (cm) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg)
200 72.0 88.0 92.0 96.0 100.0
201 72.7 88.9 92.9 97.0 101.0
202 73.4 89.8 93.8 97.9 102.0
203 74.2 90.7 94.8 98.9 103.0
204 74.9 91.6 95.7 99.9 104.0
205 75.6 92.5 96.7 100.9 105.1
206 76.4 93.4 97.6 101.8 106.1
207 77.1 94.3 98.6 102.8 107.1
208 77.9 95.2 99.5 103.8 108.2
209 78.6 96.1 100.5 104.8 109.2
210 79.4 97.0 101.4 105.8 110.3
(a) Weight for height charts given above is for all categories of personnel. This chart is prepared based on the
BMI. The chart specifies the minimum acceptable weight that candidates of a particular height must have.
Weights below the minimum specified will not be acceptable in any case. The maximum acceptable weight of
height has been specified in age wise categories. Weights higher than the acceptable limit will be acceptable only
in the case of candidates with documented evidence of body bui lding, wrestling, and boxing at the National level.
In such cases the following criteria will have to be met.
(i) Body Mass Index should be below 25.
(ii) Waist Circumference should be less than 90 cm for males and 80 cm for females.
(iii) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal limits.
(b) The minimum height required for male candidates for entry into the Armed Forces is 157 cm or as decided
by the respective recruiting agency. Gorkhas and candidates belonging to Hills of North Eastern region o f India,
Garhwal and Kumaon, will be accepted with a minimum height of 152 cm.
(c) The minimum height required for female candidates for entry into the Armed Forces is 152 cm. Gorkhas and
candidates belonging to Hills of North Eastern region of India, Garh wal and Kumaon will be accepted with a
minimum height of 148 cm.
8. Following investigations will be carried out for all officer entries and for pre -commission training academies.
However examining medical officer/ medical board may ask for any other inves tigation deemed fit.
(a) Complete haemogram
(b) Urine RE
(c) Chest X -ray
(d) USG abdomen and Pelvis.
9. Certain standards vary depending on age and type entry viz stds for vision as follows : -
Parameter Standards : 10+2 entries,
NDA(Army), TES and
equivalent Graduate & equivalent
entries: CDSE, IMA, OTA,
UES, NCC,TGC & equivalent Post graduate & equivalent
entries: JAG, AEC , APS,
RVC,TA, AMC, ADC, SL &
equivalent
Uncorrected vision(max allowed) 6/36 & 6/36 6/60 & 6/60 3/60 & 3/60
BCVA Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6 Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6 Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6
Myopia < -2.5 D Sph
( including max astigmatism ≤ +/ -
2.0 D Cyl) < -3.50 D Sph
( including max astigmatism ≤
+/- 2.0 D Cyl) < -5.50 D Sph
(including max astigmatism ≤ +/ -
2.0 D Cyl)
Hypermetropia <+2.5 D Sph,
( including max asti gmatism ≤ +/ -
2.0 D Cyl) <+3.50 DSph
( including max astigmatism ≤
+/- 2.0 D Cyl) <+3.50 D Sph
(including max astigmatism ≤ +/ -
2.0 D Cyl)
Lasik/equivalent surgery Not permitted Permitted * Permitted*
Colour perception CP-II CP-II CP-II
*LASIK or Equi valent kerato -refractive procedure
(a) Any candidate who has undergone any kerato -refractive procedure will have a certificate from the centre
where he/she has undergone the procedure, specifying the date and type of surgery.
Note: Absence of such a certi ficate will necessitate the Ophthalmologist to make a decision to reject the
candidate with specific endorsement of “Unfit due to undocumented Visual Acuity corrective procedure”.
(b) In order to be made FIT, the following criteria will have to be met:
(i) Age more than 20 yrs at the time of surgery
(ii) Minimum 12 months post LASIK
(iii) Central corneal thickness equal to or more than 450 µ
(iv) Axial length by IOL Master equal to or less than 26 mm
(v) Residual refraction of less than or equal to +/- 1.0 D incl cylinder, (provided acceptable in the
category applied for).
(vi) Normal healthy retina.
(vii) Corneal topography and ectasia markers can also be included as addl criteria.
Candidates who have undergone radial keratotomy are permanently unfit
10. Form to be used for med board proceedings is AFMSF -2A.
11. Procedure of Medical Examination Board: Medical Examination Board for selection for officers and pre -
commissioning training academies are convened at designated Armed Forces Medical Se rvices Hospitals near Service
Selection Boards (SSB). These Medical Boards are termed as ‘Special Medical Board’ (SMB). Candidates who clear
SSB interview are referred to Armed Forces Medical Services Hospital with identification documents. Staff Surgeon
of Hospital will identify the candidate, guide the candidate to fill the relevant portions of the AFMSF -2, organize
investigations and examination by Medical, Surgical, Eye, ENT, Dental specialists. Female candidates are examined
by Gynaecology Specialist also. After examination by Specialists, the candidate is brought before Medical Board.
Medical Board once satisfied with findings of Specialists will declare fitness of candidate. If any candidate is
declared ‘Unfit’ by SMB, such candidates can request f or ‘Appeal Medical Board’ (AMB). Detailed procedure for
AMB will be provided by President SMB.
12. Miscellaneous aspects:
(a) Clinical methods of examinations are laid down by O/O DGAFMS.
(b) Female candidates will be examined by female medical offic ers and specialists. In case of non -
availability they will be examined by Medical Officer in the presence of female attendant.
(c) Fitness following surgery: Candidates may be declared fit after surgery. However, there should not be
any complication; scar should be healthy, well healed and attained required tensile strength. The candidate
shall be considered fit after 01 year of open/laparoscopic surgeries for hernia and twelve weeks of
laparoscopic abdominal surgery for cholesystectomy. For any other sur gery, fitness shall be considered only
after 12 weeks of the laparoscopic surgery and 12 months after an open surgery. Candidate shall be unfit for
any surgeries for injuries, ligament tear, and meniscus tear of any joint, irrespective of duration of surge ry.
NAVY
MEDICAL STANDARD AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION FOR OFFICER ENTRIES
INTO NAVY
PROCEDURE ON CONDUCT OF MEDICAL BOARDS
1. A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board (SSB) will undergo a medical examination (Special
Medical Board) by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only those candidates, who are declared fit by the Medical
Board, will be admitted to the Academy. However, the President of the Medical Board will intimate the candidates
declared unfit of their results and the pro cedure for an Appeal Medical Board (AMB) to be completed in a Command
Hospital or equivalent within 42 days of Special Medical Board.
2. Candidates who are declared unfit by the Appeal Medical Board (AMB) may request for Review Medical board
(RMB) within o ne day of completion of Appeal Medical Board. The President AMB will intimate about the procedure
of challenging the findings of AMB. The candidates will also be intimated that sanction for holding of Review
Medical Board (RMB) will be granted at the discr etion of DGAFMS based on the merit of the case and that RMB is
not a matter of right. The candidate should address the request for RMB if he/ she so desires to DMPR, Integrated
Headquarters Ministry of Defence (Navy), Sena Bhawan, Rajaji Marg, New Delhi – 110011 and a copy of the same is
handed over to the President of AMB. O/o DGAFMS will inform the date and place (Delhi and Pune only) where the
candidate will appear for a RMB.
3. The following investigations will be carried out mandatorily during Special Medical Board. However, Medical
Officer / Medical Board examining a candidate may ask for any other investigation as required or indicated : -
(a) Complete Haemogram
(b) Urine RE/ME
(c) X Ray chest PA view
(d) USG abdomen & pelvis
(e) Liver Function Tests
(f) Renal Function Tests
(g) X Ray Lumbosacral spine, Anterior -Posterior and Lateral views
(h) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR OFFICERS (MALE/ FEMALE) ON ENTRY
4. The candidate must be physically fit according to the prescribed physical stan dards.
(a) The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/ disability which is
likely to interfere with the efficient performance of duties both ashore and afloat, under peace as well as war
conditions in any part of the world.
(b) There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or underweight. The candidate should
not be overweight or obese.
5. Weight
Height -Weight Chart : Navy
Height
in Mtrs
Up to 17 yrs 17 yrs + 1 day
to 18 yrs 18 yrs + 1 day
to 20 y rs 20 yrs + 1 day
to 30 yrs Above 30 yrs
Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg
1.47 37 45 40 45 40 48 40 50 40 52
1.48 37 46 41 46 41 48 41 50 41 53
1.49 38 47 41 47 41 49 41 51 41 53
1.5 38 47 42 47 42 50 42 52 42 54
1.51 39 48 42 48 42 50 42 52 42 55
1.52 39 49 43 49 43 51 43 53 43 55
1.53 40 49 43 49 43 51 43 54 43 56
1.54 40 50 44 50 44 52 44 55 44 57
1.55 41 50 44 50 44 53 44 55 44 58
1.56 41 51 45 51 45 54 45 56 45 58
1.57 42 52 46 52 46 54 46 57 46 59
1.58 42 52 46 52 46 55 46 57 46 60
Height
in Mtrs
Up to 17 yrs 17 yrs + 1 day
to 18 yrs 18 yrs + 1 day
to 20 y rs 20 yrs + 1 day
to 30 yrs Above 30 yrs
Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg
1.59 43 53 47 53 47 56 47 58 47 61
1.6 44 54 47 54 47 56 47 59 47 61
1.61 44 54 48 54 48 57 48 60 48 62
1.62 45 55 49 55 49 58 49 60 49 63
1.63 45 56 49 56 49 58 49 61 49 64
1.64 46 56 50 56 50 59 50 62 50 65
1.65 46 57 50 57 50 60 50 63 50 65
1.66 47 58 51 58 51 61 51 63 51 66
1.67 47 59 52 59 52 61 52 64 52 67
1.68 48 59 52 59 52 62 52 65 52 68
1.69 49 60 53 60 53 63 53 66 53 69
1.7 49 61 53 61 53 64 53 66 53 69
1.71 50 61 54 61 54 64 54 67 54 70
1.72 50 62 55 62 55 65 55 68 55 71
1.73 51 63 55 63 55 66 55 69 55 72
1.74 51 64 56 64 56 67 56 70 56 73
1.75 52 64 57 64 57 67 57 70 57 74
1.76 53 65 57 65 57 68 57 71 57 74
1.77 53 66 58 66 58 69 58 72 58 75
1.78 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 73 59 76
1.79 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 74 59 77
1.8 55 68 60 68 60 71 60 75 60 78
1.81 56 69 61 69 61 72 61 75 61 79
1.82 56 70 61 70 61 73 61 76 61 79
1.83 57 70 62 70 62 74 62 77 62 80
1.84 58 71 63 71 63 74 63 78 63 81
1.85 58 72 63 72 63 75 63 79 63 82
1.86 59 73 64 73 64 76 64 80 64 83
1.87 59 73 65 73 65 77 65 80 65 84
1.88 60 74 65 74 65 78 65 81 65 85
1.89 61 75 66 75 66 79 66 82 66 86
1.9 61 76 67 76 67 79 67 83 67 87
1.91 62 77 67 77 67 80 67 84 67 88
1.92 63 77 68 77 68 81 68 85 68 88
1.93 63 78 69 78 69 82 69 86 69 89
1.94 64 79 70 79 70 83 70 87 70 90
1.95 65 80 70 80 70 84 70 87 70 91
Notes: -
(a) The minimum and maxi mum weight for height will be standard for all categories of personnel.
Candidates with weight below the minimum specified will not be accepted.
(b) Male candidates with weight higher than specified will be acceptable only in exceptional circumstances
in case of candidates with documented evidence of body building, wrestling, boxing or muscular build. In
such cases, the following criteria are to be met : -
(i) Body Mass Index should not be more than 25.
(i) Waist : Hip Ratio less than 0.9.
(ii) All biochemical pa rameters such as blood sugar Fasting and PP, blood urea, creatinine, cholesterol,
HbA1C%, etc are within normal limits.
(c) The fitness can only be given by a Medical Specialist.
(d) The minimum acceptable height is 157 cms. However, relaxation in height is permissible to candidates
holding domicile of areas as mentioned below and talented sports male candidates: -
Sl No Category Minimum Height for Male
Candidates
(i) Tribals from Ladhakh Region 155 Cm
(ii) Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshdweep and Minicoy Islan ds 155 Cm
(iii) Gorkhas, Nepali, Assamese, Garhwali, Kumaoni and Uttarakhand 152 Cm
(iv) Bhutan, Sikkim & North East Region 152 Cm
(v) Extra talented sports candidates 155 Cm
6. During the medical examination of candidates, the following principal p oints will be ensured: -
(a) The candidate is sufficiently intelligent.
(b) The hearing is good and that there is no sign of any disease of ear, nose or throat.
(c) Vision in either eye is up to the required standard. His/ her eyes are bright, clear and w ith no obvious
squint or abnormality. Movements of eye balls should be full and free in all directions.
(d) Speech is without impediment.
(e) There is no glandular swelling.
(f) Chest is well formed and that his/her heart and lungs are sound.
(g) Limbs of the candidates are well formed and fully developed.
(h) There is no evidence of hernia of any degree or form.
(j) There is free and perfect action of all the joints.
(k) Feet and toes are well formed.
(l) Absence of any congenital malformation or d efects.
(m) He/she does not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to an impaired
constitution.
(n) Presence of sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient mastication.
(p) Absence of any disease of the Genito -Urinary tract.
7. Major defects for rejection are as under: -
(a) Weak constitution, imperfect development, congenital malformation, muscular wasting.
(b) Malformation of the head including deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of the skull.
(c) Assessment of Scoli osis. Cobb’s angle of 15 degrees at Lumbar Spine and 20 degrees at Dorsal Spine
will be the cut -off limits for scoliosis. Scoliosis will be declared Unfit if deformity exists on full flexion of
the spine with restriction of range of movements or due to org anic defect causing structural abnormality.
(d) Skeletal deformity either hereditary or acquired and disease or impairment of function of bones or joints.
Note: - Rudimentary cervical rib causing no signs or symptoms is acceptable.
(e) Asymmetry of torso or limbs, abnormality of locomotion including amputation.
(f) Deformity of feet and toes.
(i) Hyperextensible Finger Joints . All candidates shall be thoroughly examined for hyper -
extensible finger joints. Any extension of fingers bending backwards beyond 9 0 degrees shall be
considered hyper -extensible and considered unfit. Other joints like Knee, Elbow, Spine and Thumb
shall also be examined carefully for features of hyper laxity/ hypermobility. Although the individual
may not show features of hyper laxity in other joints, isolated presentation of hyper extensibility of
finger joints shall be considered unfit because of the various ailments that may manifest later if such
candidates are subjected to strenuous physical training as mentioned above.
(ii) Mallet Finger . Loss of extensor mechanism at the distal inter - phalangeal joint leads to Mallet
finger. Chronic mallet deformity can lead to secondary changes in the PIP and MCP joint which can
result in compromised hand function. Normal range of movement at DIP joints is 0 -80 degree and
PIP joint is 0 -90 degrees in both flexion and extension. In Mallet finger, candidate unable to extend/
straighten distal phalanx of fingers completely.
(aa) Candidates with mild condition i.e., less than 10 degrees of extension l ag without any
evidence of trauma, pressure symptoms and any functional deficit should be declared Fit.
(ab) Candidates with fixed deformity of fingers will be declared Unfit.
(iii) Polydactyly . Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post -op. Can be declared fit if there is no
bony abnormality (X -Ray), wound is well healed and scar is supple.
(iv) Simple Syndactyly . Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post op. Can be declared fit if there
is no bony abnormality (X -Ray), wound is well healed and scar is supp le.
(v) Complex Syndactyly . Unfit
(vi) Polymazia . Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post -op.
(vii) Hyperostosis Frontalis Interna . Will be considered fit in the absence of any other metabolic
abnormality.
(viii) Healed Fractures .
(aa) All intra -articu lar fractures especially of major joints (Shoulder, elbow, wrist, hip,
knee and ankle) with or without surgery, with or without implant shall be considered unfit.
(ab) All extra -articular injuries with post -operative status with or without implant shall
be considered unfit.
(ac) All extra -articular injuries of long bones which have been managed
conservatively shall be thoroughly evaluated clinically for soft tissue involvement, crush
component, alignment, mal -union/ non -union or any miscellaneous causes which can later
on pres ent with a disability on being subjected to physical stress shall be considered unfit if
found so. However, the fitness of a candidate in whom the fracture has consolidated well
and remodelled after conservative treatment with no evi dence of mal -alignment, shortening,
soft tissue involvement etc. shall be at the discretion of Surgical Specialist or Medical
Board.
(viii) Cubitus Recurvatum . >10 degrees is Unfit
(ix) Cubitus Valgus .
(aa) Measurement of Carrying Angle . The carrying a ngle at the elbow is assessed
conventionally with the elbow in full extension using a protractor goniometer to measure
the axes from the surface margin of the arm and forearm. However, variations in the
development of the soft tissues in the arm and forear m generally lead to inconsistencies in
the measured results. So far, there is no uniform method to measure the carrying angle of
the elbow. However, measuring the carrying angle of the elbow through identification of
bony landmarks on the acromion, medial and lateral epicondyles of the humerus, and the
distal radial and ulnar styloid processes is recommended. Carrying angle is measured by a
manual goniometer with two drawing axes of the arm and forearm. The axis of the arm is
defined by the lateral border o f the cranial surface of the acromion to the midpoint of the
lateral and medial epicondyles of the humerus. The axis of the forearm is defined by the
midpoint of the lateral and medial epicondyles of the humerus to the midpoint of the distal
radial and uln ar styloid processes.
(ab) Cubitus valgus should be primarily a clinical diagnosis. The suggested indications
to perform a radiographic evaluation include: -
(i) History of trauma
(ii) Scar around elbow
(iii) Asymmetry of angles
(iv) Distal neurovascular d eficit
(v) Restricted range of motion
(vi) If deemed necessary by Orthopaedic Surgeon
(x) Hyperextension at Elbow Joint . Individuals can have naturally hyperextended elbow.
This condition is not a medical problem, but can be a cause of fracture or chronic pain especially
considering the stress and strains military population is involved in. Also, the inability to return the
elbow to within 10 degrees of the neutral position is impairment in the activities of daily living.
(aa) Measurement modality. Measure d using a Goniometer
(ab) Normal elbow extension is 0 degrees. Up to 10 degrees of hyperextension is
within normal limits if the patient has no history of trauma to the joint. Anyone with
hyperextension more than 10 degree should be unfit.
8. Eye.
(a) Deformity or morbid condition of the eye or eyelids that is liable for aggravation or
recurrence.
(b) Manifest squint of any degree.
(c) Active trachoma or its complication or sequelae.
(d) Visual acuity below prescribed standards.
Notes: -
1. Visual standar ds for CDSE entry are as follows : -
Criteria CDSE
Uncorrected Vision 6/12 6/12
Corrected Vision 6/6 6/6
Limits of Myopia 1.0D Sph
Limits of Hypermetropia + 2.0D Cyl
Astigmatism (within limits of myopia and hypermetropia) ±1.0D Sph / Cyl
Binoc ular Vision III
Colour Perception I
2. Kerato Refractive Surgery. Candidates who have undergone any Refractory Surgery
(PRK/LASIK/SMILE) can be considered fit in all branches (except submarine, diving and MARCO cadre)
subject to the following conditions: -
(a) Surgery should not have been carried out before 20 yrs of age.
(b) Uncomplicated surgery at least 12 months before examination (Certificate mentioning the
type of refractive surgery, date of surgery and pre -operative refractive error from concerned e ye
centre is to be produced by the candidate at the time of recruitment medical examination).
Post LASIK Standards . Candidate will be considered Fit if Axial Length by IOL Master is equal
to or less than 26 mm and Central Corneal Thickness is equal to or m ore than 450 microns
(c) Residual refraction less than or equal to +1.0 D Sph or Cyl, provided within the permissible
limit for the category applied for. However, for Pilot and Observer entries, the residual refraction
should be nil.
(d) Pre-operative ref ractive error not more than +/ - 6.0 D
(e) Normal retinal examination.
3. Kerato -Refractory Surgery (PRK, LASIK, SMILE) is not acceptable for special cadres such as
submarine, diving and MARCO. Candidates who have undergone Radial Keratotomy are permanently
unfit for all branches.
(i) Ptosis . Candidate will be considered fit post -operative provided there is no recurrence one year
after surgery, visual axis is clear with normal visual fields and upper eyelid is 02 mm below the superior
limbus. Candidates, w ho have not undergone surgery for the condition, would be considered fit if they meet
any of the following criteria: -
(aa) Mild ptosis
(ab) Clear visual axis
(ac) Normal visual field
(ad) No sign of aberrant degeneration/ head tilt
(ii) Exotropia . Unf it
(iii) Anisocoria . If size difference between the pupils is > 01mm, candidate will be considered unfit.
(iv) Heterochromia Iridum . Unfit
(v) Sphincter Tears . Can be considered fit is size difference between pupils is <01mm, pupillary
reflexes are br isk with no observed pathology in cornea, lens or retina.
(vi) Pseudophakia . Unfit
(vii) Lenticular Opacities . Any lenticular opacity causing visual deterioration, or is in the visual axis or
is present in an area of 07 mm around the pupils, which may cause glare phenomenon, should be considered
Unfit. The propensity of the opacities not to increase in size or number should also be a consideration when
deciding fitness. Small stationery lenticular opacities in the periphery like congenital blue dot cat aract, not
affecting the visual axis/ visual field may be considered by specialist (Should be less than 10 in number and
central area of 04 mm to be clear).
(viii) Optic Nerve Drusen . Unfit
(ix) High Cup Disc Ratio . Candidate will be considered fit i f the ratio is <0.2 with normal visual fields
with no other evidence of glaucoma. Candidates with high cup disc ratio (>0.2)/Abnormal RNFL
study/Visual Field Defect detected by Visual Field Analyzer will be considered Unfit.
(x) Keratoconus . Unfit
(xi) Lattice .
(aa) The following lattice degenerations will render a candidate Unfit: -
(i) Single circumferential lattice extending more than two clock hours in either or
both eyes.
(ii) Two circumferential lattices each more than one clock hour in extent in either or
both eyes.
(iii) Radial lattices.
(iv) Any lattice with atrophic hole/ flap tears (Unlasered).
(v) Lattice degenerations posterior to equator.
(ab) Candidates with lattice degeneration will be considered Fit under the following conditions: -
(i) Single circumferential lattice without holes of less than two clock hours in either
or both eyes.
(ii) Two circumferential lattices without holes each being less than one clock hour in
extent in either or both eyes.
(iii) Post Laser delimitation single circumferential lattice, without holes/ flap tear, less
than two clock hours extent in either or both eyes.
(iv) Post Laser delimitation two circumferential lattices, without holes/ flap tear, each
being less than one clock hour extent in either or both eyes.
9. Ear, Nose and Throat .
(a) Ear. History or recurrent ear ache, tinnitus or vertigo, impairment of hearing, disease of the external
meatus including atresia, exostosis or neoplasm which prevent a thorough examination of the drum, unhealed
perforat ion of the tympanic membrane, aural discharge or sign of acute or chronic suppurative otitis media,
evidence of radical or modified radical mastoid operation.
Notes: -
1. A candidate should be able to hear forced whisper at a distance of 610 cms with each e ar
separately with back to the examiner.
2. Otitis Media. Current Otitis Media of any type will entail rejection. Evidence of healed chronic
otitis media in the form of tympanosclerosis/ scarred tympanic membrane affecting less than 50% of
Pars Tensa of ty mpanic membrane will be assessed by ENT Specialist and will be acceptable if Pure
Tone Audiometry (PTA) and Tympanometry are normal. Healed healthy scar (Dimeric Tympanic
Membrane or cartilage) of the Neo -Tympanic Membrane involving less than 50% of Pars T ensa due
to Type 1 Tympanoplasty (tympanic membrane repair with or without cartilage)/ Myringoplasty
(with or without intact cortical mastoidectomy) for Chronic Otitis Media (mucosal type) and
Myringotomy (for Otitis Media with Effusion) may be accepted af ter minimum period of 1 year post
surgery if PTA and tympanometry are normal.
(i) The fwg conditions would render a candidate Unfit: -
(aa) Residual perforation
(ab) Residual hearing loss on Free Field Hearing and/or PTA
(ac) Any other type of tympanoplasty (other than Type 1 Tympanoplasty) or
middle ear surgery (including ossiculoplasty, stapedotomy, canal wall down
mastoidectomy, atticotomy, attico -antrostomy etc)
(ad) Any implanted hearing device (eg. cochlear implant, bone conduction
implant, middle ear implants etc).
(b) Bony Growth of External Auditory Canal . Any candidate with clinically evident bony growth of
external auditory canal like exostosis, osteoma, fibrous dysplasia etc. will be declared Unfit. Assessment of
operated cases will be done aft er minimum period of 4 weeks. Post -surgery histopathology report and HRCT
temporal bone will be mandatory. If the histo -pathological report is suggestive of a neoplasia or HRCT
temporal bone is suggestive of partial removal or deep extension it would entai l rejection.
(c) Nose. Disease of the bones or cartilages of the nose, marked nasal allergy, nasal polyps, atrophic
rhinitis, disease of the accessory sinuses and nasopharynx.
Note :- Septal Deformity. Nasal septal perforation can be anterior cartilaginous or posterior bony perforation.
Simple nasal deformity not causing disfigurement, minor septal deviation not interfering with nasal airway
and small traumatic septal perforation which are asymptomatic are acceptable. Any septal perforation greater
than 01 c m in the greatest dimension is a ground for rejection. A septal perforation which is associated with
nasal deformity, nasal crusting, epistaxis and granulation irrespective of the size is a ground for rejection.
Nasal Polyposis . It is also known as Chron ic Rhinosinusitis with polyposis (CRSwNP). Nasal polyposis is
mostly associated with allergy, asthma, sensitivity to NSAIDs and infection i.e. bacterial and fungal. Most of
these patients have high chances of recurrence and require long term management wit h nasal/ oral steroids
and are unfit for extremes of climate and temperature conditions. Any individual detected to have nasal
polyposis on examination or with history of having undergone surgery for nasal polyposis will be rejected.
(d) Throat . Disease of throat palate, tongue, tonsils, gums and disease or injury affecting the normal
function of either mandibular joints.
Note: Simple hypertrophy of the tonsils without associated history of attacks of tonsillitis is acceptable.
(e) Disease of the larynx an d impediment of speech. Voice should be normal. Candidates with pronounced
stammer will not be accepted.
10. Dental Condition . It should be ensured that a sufficient number of natural and sound teeth are present for efficient
mastication.
(a) A candidate m ust have a minimum of 14 dental points to be acceptable in order to assess the dental
condition of an individual. Dental points less than 14 are a cause of rejection. The dental points are allotted as
under for teeth in good opposition with corresponding t eeth in the other jaw: -
(i) Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, 1st Premolar, 2nd Premolar and under developed third molar with 1
point each.
(ii) 1st molar and 2nd molar and fully developed 3rd molar with 2 points each.
(iii) When all 32 teeth are pres ent, there will be a total count of 22 or 20 pints according to whether
the third molars are well developed or not.
(b) The following teeth in good functional apposition must be present in each jaw: -
(i) Any 4 of the 6 anteriors.
(ii) Any 6 of the 10 posteriors.
All these teeth must be sound/ repairable.
(c) Candidates suffering from severe pyorrhea will be rejected. Where the state of pyorrhea is such that in
the opinion of the Dental Officer, it can be cured without extraction of teeth, the candida tes may be accepted.
A note about the affected teeth is to be inserted by the Medical/ Dental Officer in the medical documents.
(d) Artificial dentures are not to be included while counting the dental points.
11. Neck .
(a) Enlarged glands, tubercular or due t o other diseases in the neck or other parts of the body.
Note: - Scars of operations for the removal of tubercular glands are not a cause for rejection provided there
has been no active disease within the preceding five years and the chest is clinically an d radiologically clear.
(b) Disease of the thyroid gland.
12. Chest . The following are criteria for rejection: -
(a) Deformity of chest, congenital or acquired.
(b) Expansion less than 5 cms.
(c) Significant bilateral/ unilateral Gynaecomastia in males can be e valuated for fitness 12
weeks post -op.
13. Skin and Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI) .
(a) Skin disease unless temporary or trivial.
(b) Scars which by their extent or position cause or are likely to cause disability/ or marked disfigurement.
(c) Hyperhydrosis - Palmar, plantar or axillary.
(d) Congenital, active or latent sexually transmitted diseases.
Note: - In cases with old healed scar over the groin or penis/ vagina suggestive of past STI, blood will be
tested for STI (Including HIV) to exclude latent Sexually Tr ansmitted Disease.
14. Respiratory System .
(a) History of chronic cough or Bronchial Asthma.
(b) Evidence of pulmonary Tuberculosis.
(c) Evidence of diseases of bronchi, lungs or pleurae detected on radiological examination of the chest will
disqualify the candidate.
Note: - An X -Ray examination of the chest will be carried out under following circumstances: -
(i) On entry into the service as a cadet or direct entry.
(ii) At the time of grant of permanent commission in case of short service commissioned officer.
15. Cardio -Vascular System .
(a) Functional or organic disease of the heart or blood vessels, presence of murmurs or clicks on
auscultation.
(b) Tachycardia (Pulse Rate persistently over 96/min at rest), bradycardia (Pulse Rate persistently
below 40/ min at rest), any abnormality of peripheral pulse.
(c) Blood Pressure . Candidate with Blood Pressure consistently greater than 140/90mm Hg will be
rejected. All such candidates shall undergo a 24 hour Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring (24 h ABPM)
to differ entiate between white coat hypertension and persistent hypertension. Wherever feasible, candidates
will be evaluated by a Cardiologist at AMB. Those with normal 24 h ABPM and without any target organ
damage can be considered fit after evaluation by a cardi ologist.
(d) Electrocardiogram (ECG) . Any ECG abnormality detected at SMB will be a ground for rejection.
Such candidates will be evaluated by a cardiologist during AMB with echocardiography for structural
abnormality and stress test if deemed necessary. B enign ECG abnormalities like incomplete RBBB, T wave
inversion in inferior leads, T inversion in V1 -V3 (persistent juvenile pattern), LVH by voltage criteria (due to
thin chest wall) may exist without any structural heart disease. Echocardiography should b e performed in all
such cases to rule out an underlying structural heart disease and opinion of Senior Adviser (Medicine)/
Cardiologist should be obtained. If echocardiography and stress tests (if indicated) are normal, the individual
can be considered fit .
16. Abdomen .
(a) Evidence of any disease of the gastro -intestinal tract, enlargement of liver, gall bladder or spleen,
tenderness on abdominal palpation, evidence/ history of peptic ulcer or previous history of extensive
abdominal surgery. All officer en try candidates are to be subjected to the Ultra Sound Examination of the
abdominal and pelvic organs for detecting any abnormalities of the internal organs.
(b) Post-op Assessment . Post -op duration for assessment of fitness in common conditions: -
(i) Hern ia. Those who have been operated for hernia may be declared fit provided: -
(aa) 24 weeks have elapsed since the operation for Anterior Abdominal Wall hernia.
Documentary proof to this effect is to be produced by the candidate.
(ab) General tone of the ab dominal musculature is good.
(ac) There has been no recurrence of hernia or any complication connected with the
operation.
(ii) Other Conditions . Those who have been operated for below mentioned conditions may be
declared fit provided: -
(aa) Open Cholecy stectomy. 24 weeks (In the absence of Incisional Hernia)
(ab) Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. 08 weeks (Normal LFT, Normal histopathology).
(ac) Appendicectomy. 04 weeks (with normal histo -pathological findings)
(ad) Pilonidal Sinus. 12 weeks
(ae) Fistula -in-Ano, Anal Fissure and Grade IV Hemorrhoids.12 weeks post -op with
satisfactory treatment and recovery.
(af) Hydrocele and Varicocele. 08 weeks post -op with satisfactory treatment and
recovery.
(c) Fistula in anus, anal fissures and Hemorrhoids unless satisfac tory to treatment has been carried out.
(d) Agenesis of Gall Bladder . Will be considered fit in the absence of any other abnormality of the biliary
tract. MRCP will be done for all such cases.
17. Genito -Urinary System .
(a) Any evidence of disease of genital o rgans.
(b) Bilateral undescended testis, unilateral undescended testis retained in the inguinal canal or at the external
abdominal ring unless corrected by operation.
Note: - Absence of one testis is not a cause for rejection unless the testis has been removed on account of
disease or its absence has affected the physical or mental health of the candidate.
(c) Disease or malformation of the kidneys or urethra.
(d) Incontinence of urine and nocturnal enuresis.
(e) Any abnormality on examination of urine including al buminuria or glycosuria.
(f) The following are criteria for rejection: -
(aa) Renal Calculi. Irrespective of size, numbers, obstructive or non -obstructive. History of renal
calculi (History or radiological evidence) will render a candidate Unfit.
(ab) Calyecdasis
(ac) Bladder Diverticulum
(ad) Simple Renal Cyst. > 1.5Cm
18. Central Nervous System .
(a) Organic disease of Central Nervous System.
(b) Tremors.
(c) Candidates with history of fits and recurrent attacks of headache/ migraine will not be accepted.
19. Psychiatric Disorders . History or evidence of mental disease or nervous instability in the candidate or his family.
20. Lab Investigation (Hematology) .
(a) Polycythemia . Hemoglobin more than 16.5g/dL in males and more than 16g/dL in females will
be considere d as Polycythemia and deemed Unfit.
(b) Monocytosis . Absolute monocyte counts greater than 1000/cu mm or more than or equal to
10% of total WBC counts is to be deemed Unfit.
(c) Eosinophilia . Absolute eosinophil counts greater than or equal to 500/ cu mm is deemed Unfit.
21. Acceptable Defects on Entry . Candidates for the Navy with the following minor defects may be
accepted. These defects are however to be noted in the medical forms on entry.
(a) Knock Knees with a separation of less than 5 cm at the in ternal malleoli.
(b) Mild curvature of legs not affecting walking or running. Intercondylar distance should not be over
7 cm.
(c) Mild stammering not affecting expression.
(d) Mild degree of varicocele.
(e) Mild degree of varicose veins.
Note :- Rem edial operations wherever required are to be performed prior to entry. No guarantee is
given about ultimate acceptance and it should be clearly understood by a candidate that the decision
whether an operation is desirable or necessary is one to be made by their private medical advisor.
The Government will accept no liability regarding the result of operation or any expenses incurred.
(f) Any other slight defect which produces no functional disability and which in the opinion of
medical officer/ medical board will not interfere with the individual’s efficiency as an officer.
AIR FORCE
MEDICAL STANDARD AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION FOR OFFICER ENTRIES
INTO AIR FORCE
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. In this section, standardized guidelines for the physical as sessment of candidates for commissioning through
CDSE into flying branch in the IAF are elaborated. The purpose of these guidelines is to lay down uniform physical
standards and to ensure that the candidates are free of health conditions that may hamper or limit their performance in
the respective branch. The guidelines enumerated in this section are meant to be applied in conjunction with the
standard methods of clinical examination.
2. All candidates during their induction should meet the basic physical fitness standards which will enable them to
proficiently undergo the training and the subsequent service in varied climatic and work environments. A candidate
will not be assessed physically fit unless the complete examination shows that he/ she is physica lly and mentally
capable of withstanding the severe physical and mental strain for prolonged periods. The requirements of medical
fitness are essentially the same for all branches, except for aircrew in whom the parameters for visual acuity,
anthropometry and certain other physical standards are more stringent.
3. The results of initial examination are recorded on AFMSF – 2. The complete medical examination consists of: -
(a) A questionnaire, which is to be carefully and truthfully completed by the candidat e and countersigned by the
examining medical officer. The importance of all aspects of the questionnaire, including the legal aspect, should
be emphasised to all the candidates. Any subsequent detection of disability or revelation of a significant past
history, not declared earlier, may lead to disqualification at any stage prior to commissioning. USG abdomen
would be conducted for all candidates and cadets during medical examination prior to commissioning.
(b) A complete medical and surgical examination inc luding dental examination
(c) An ophthalmic examination.
(d) An examination of the ear, nose and throat.
4. The medical standards spelt out pertain to initial entry medical standards. Continuation of medical fitness during
training will be assessed during the per iodic medical examinations held at AFA prior to commissioning.
5. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are general guidelines. They are not exhaustive, in view
of the vast spectrum of diseases. These standards are subject to change with the advancement in the scientific
knowledge and change in working conditions of Armed Forces.
6. Mandatory Lab and Radiological Investigations
(a) Hematology: Complete Hemogram
(b) Biochemistry: Liver function tests, Renal Function tests
(c) Urine RE and M E
(d) Radiology: USG abdomen and Pelvis, X -ray chest PA view, X -ray LS Spine, AP and Lateral views
(e) ECG
GENERAL PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT
1. Every candidate, to be fit for the Air Force, must conform to the minimum standards laid down in the succeeding
paragr aphs. The physical parameters should fall within the acceptable ranges and should be proportionate.
2. The residual effects of old fractures/ injuries are to be assessed for any functional limitation. If there is no effect
on function, the candidate can be assessed fit. Following categories should be meticulously assessed:
(a) Spine injuries . Cases of old fractures of spine are unfit. Any residual deformity of spine or compression of a
vertebra will be cause for rejection.
(b) Nerve injuries . Injuries involving t he trunks of the larger nerves, resulting in loss of function, or neuroma
formation, which causes pain significant tingling, indicate unsuitability for employment in flying duties.
(c) Keloids . The presence of large or multiple keloids will be a cause for reje ction.
3. (a) Surgical Scars . Minor well -healed scars for e.g. as resulting from any superficial surgery do not, per se,
indicate unsuitability for employment. Extensive scarring of a limb or torso that may cause functional limitation
or unsightly appearan ce should be considered unfit.
(b) Birth Marks . Abnormal pigmentation in the form of hypo or hyperpigmentation is not acceptable.
Localized, congenital mole/ naevus, however, is acceptable provided its size is <10 cm. Congenital multiple
naevi or vascula r tumours that interfere with function or are exposed to constant irritation are not acceptable.
(c) Subcutaneous Swellings . Lipoma will be considered fit unless the lipoma is causing significant
disfigurement/ functional impairment due to the size/ locati on. Neurofibroma, if single will be considered fit.
Multiple neurofibromas associated with significant Café -au-lait spots (more than 1.5 cm size or more than one in
number) will be considered unfit.
4. Cervical Rib . Cervical rib without any neuro -vascu lar compromise will be accepted. Meticulous clinical
examination to rule out neuro -vascular compromise should be performed in such cases. This should be documented in
the Medical Board proceedings.
5. Cranio -facial Deformities . Asymmetry of the face and he ad or uncorrected deformities of skull, face or
mandible which will interfere with proper fitting of oxygen mask, helmet or military headgear will be considered
unfit. Major deformities even after corrective surgery will be considered unfit.
6. History r elating to Operations . A candidate who has undergone an abdominal operation involving extensive
surgical intervention or partial/ total excision of any organ is, as a rule, unfit for service . Operation involving the
cranial vault with any residual bony d efect will be unfit. Major thoracic operations will make the candidate unfit.
MEASUREMENTS AND PHYSIQUE
7. Chest Shape and Circumference . The shape of the chest is as important as its actual measurement. The chest
should be well proportioned and well dev eloped. Any chest deformity likely to interfere with physical exertion during
training and performance of military duties or adversely impact military bearing or are associated with any
cardiopulmonary or musculoskeletal anomaly are to be considered unfit. Minimum recommended chest circumference
for cadets is 77 cm. The chest expansion should be at least 05 cm for all candidates. For the purpose of documentation,
any decimal fraction lower than 0.5 cm will be ignored, 0.5 cm will be recorded as such and 0.6 cm and above will be
recorded as 1 cm.
Height, Sitting Height, Leg Length and Thigh Length .
8. Minimum height for Flying Branch will be 162.5 cm. Acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length
and sitting height for such aircrew will be as under: -
(a) Sitting height Minimum - 81.5 cm
Maximum - 96.0 cm
(b) Leg Length Minimum - 99.0 cm
Maximum - 120.0 cm
(c) Thigh Length Maximum - 64.0 cm
The minimum height for entry into ground duty branches will be 157.5 cm. For Gorkhas and individual
belonging to North -Eastern regions of India and hilly regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum acceptable height will be
5 cm less (152.5 cm). In case of candidates from Lakshwadweep the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2
cm (155.5 cm).
9. Body We ight Parameters
(a) Male Candidates (except NDA candidates). Ideal weight relative to age and height is given in Appendix ‘A’ to
this notification. The weight will be rounded off to the nearest 0.5 kg. The maximum permissible variation from
the ideal body weig ht is ± 1 SD.
(b) For in -service candidates the criteria of body weight applicable to serving personnel will be used.
10. Weights higher than the prescribed limit will be acceptable only in exceptional circumstances in case of those
candidates where there is d ocumented evidence of bodybuilding, wrestling and boxing. However, in such cases, the
following criteria will have to be met:
(a) BMI should be below 27.
(b) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for males and 0.8 for females.
(c) Waist circumference should be less than 94 cm for males and 89 cm for females.
(d) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal limits.
Appendix -A Height and Weight Standards for Male
Height in cm Age Range (Years)
15-17 18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37
152 46 47 50 54 54
153 47 47 51 55 55
154 47 48 51 56 56
155 48 49 52 56 56
156 48 49 53 57 57
157 49 50 54 58 58
158 49 50 54 58 58
159 50 51 55 59 59
Height in cm Age Range (Years)
15-17 18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37
160 51 52 56 59 60
161 51 52 56 60 60
162 52 53 57 61 61
163 52 54 58 61 62
164 53 54 59 62 63
165 53 55 59 63 63
166 54 56 60 63 64
167 54 56 61 64 65
168 55 57 61 65 65
169 55 57 62 65 66
170 56 58 63 66 67
171 56 59 64 66 68
172 57 59 64 67 68
173 58 60 65 68 69
174 58 61 66 68 70
175 59 61 66 69 71
176 59 62 67 70 71
177 60 62 68 70 72
178 60 63 69 71 73
179 61 64 69 72 73
180 61 64 70 72 74
181 62 65 71 73 75
182 62 66 72 74 76
183 63 66 72 74 76
184 64 67 73 75 77
185 64 68 74 75 78
186 65 68 74 76 78
187 65 69 75 77 79
188 66 69 76 77 80
189 66 70 77 78 81
190 67 71 77 79 81
191 67 71 78 79 82
192 68 72 79 80 82
193 68 73 79 81 83
SD 6.0 6.3 7.1 6.6 6.9
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
1. History of chest pain, breathlessness, palpitation, fainting attacks, giddiness, rheumatic fever, ankle swelling,
chorea, frequent sore throats and tonsillitis should b e given due consideration in assessment of the cardiovascular
system.
2. Pulse . Rate, rhythm, volume, tension, regularity of the pulse and conditions of the arterial wall are assessed. The
normal pulse rate varies from 60 -100 bpm. The pulse should be co unted for one full minute. The pulsations for the
radial and femoral arteries should always be compared and any difference, if any, should be recorded. Other peripheral
pulsations viz. carotid, popliteal, posterior tibial artery and dorsalispedis artery on both sides should also be palpated
and any difference, if noted should be documented. Persistent sinus tachycardia (> 100 bpm) as well as persistent
sinus bradycardia (< 60 bpm) are unfit. In case bradycardia is considered to be physiological, the candida te can be
declared fit after evaluation by Medical Specialist/ Cardiologist.
3. Blood Pressure. Candidate with BP consistently greater than 140/90mm of Hg will be rejected. All such
candidates shall undergo a 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (24 h ABPM) to differentiate between white
coat hypertension and persistent hypertension. Wherever feasible, candidates will be evaluated by a cardiologist at
AMB. Those with normal 24 h ABPM and without target organ damage can be considered fit after eval uation by a
cardiologist at AMB.
4. Cardiac Murmurs . Evidence of organic cardiovascular disease will be cause for rejection. Diastolic murmurs
are invariably organic. Short systolic murmurs of ejection systolic nature and not associated with thrill and w hich
diminish on standing, especially if associated with a normal ECG and chest radiograph, are most often functional. In
case of any doubt the case should be referred to cardiologist for opinion.
5. ECG . Any ECG abnormality detected at SMB will be a gr ound for rejection. Such candidates will be evaluated
by a cardiologist during AMB with echocardiography for structural abnormality and stress test if deemed necessary.
Benign ECG abnormalities like incomplete RBBB, T wave inversion in inferior leads, T in version in V1 -V3
(persistent juvenile pattern), LVH by voltage criteria (due to thin chest wall) may exist without any structural heart
disease. Echocardiography should be performed in all such cases to rule out an underlying structural heart disease and
opinion of senior Adviser (Medicine/ Cardiologist) should be obtained. If echocardiography and stress tests (if
indicated) are normal, the individual can be considered fit.
6. Cardiac surgery and interventions . Candidates with history of cardiac surgery/ in tervention in the past will be
considered unfit.
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. History of pulmonary tuberculosis, pleurisy with effusion, frequent episodes of expectorant cough, haemoptysis,
frequent episodes of bronchitis, asthma, spontaneous pneumothorax and injur ies to the chest should be elicited.
Spirometry/ Peak Expiratory Flow Rate may be done in cases suspected to have obstructive airway disease. In case
there is any suspicion of lung pathology, relevant investigations, including X Ray/ CT chest/ Immunologica l tests etc
may be carried out to decide fitness. Final fitness in doubtful cases will be decided only at appeal level after opinion of
Sr Adv (Med)/ Pulmonologist.
2. Pulmonary Tuberculosis . Any residual scarring in pulmonary parenchyma or pleura, as eviden ced by a
demonstrable opacity on chest radiogram will be a ground for rejection. Old treated cases with no significant residual
abnormality can be accepted if the diagnosis and treatment was completed more than two years earlier. In these cases,
a CT scan chest and fibreoptic bronchoscopy with bronchial lavage can be done along with USG, ESR, PCR,
Immunological tests and Mantoux test as decided by the Physician. If all the tests are normal the candidate may be
considered fit. However, in such cases fitness will only be decided at Appeal/ Review Medical Board.
3. Pleurisy with Effusion . Any evidence of significant residual pleural thickening will be a cause for rejection.
4. Bronchitis . History of repeated attacks of cough/ wheezing/ bronchitis may be manifestati ons of chronic bronchitis
or other chronic pathology of the respiratory tract. Such cases will be assessed unfit. Pulmonary Function Tests may
be carried out, if available. In such cases, opinion of the Medical Specialist/ Chest Physician may be obtaine d.
5. Bronchial Asthma . History of repeated attacks of bronchial asthma/ wheezing/ allergic rhinitis will be a cause for
rejection.
6. Radiographs of the Chest . Definite radiological evidence of disease of the lungs, mediastinum and pleurae are
criteria for d eclaring the candidate unfit. If required, investigations as outlined in para 2 above can be carried out
under the advice of a pulmonologist.
7. Thoracic surgery . Candidate with history of any resection of the lung parenchyma will be considered unit. Any
other major surgery of the thorax will be considered on a case to case basis.
GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
1. The examiner should enquire whether the candidate has any past history of ulceration or infection of the mouth,
tongue, gums or throat. Record should be made of any major dental alteration. When discussing a candidate’s medical
history the examiner must ask direct questions about any history of heartburn, history of recurrent dyspepsia, peptic
ulcer -type pain, chronic diarrhoea, jaundice or biliary colic, indigestion, constipation, bleeding PR and any abdominal
surgery.
2. Bladder diverticulum will be declared as Unfit.
3. Head to toe examination . Presence of any sign of liver cell failure (e.g. loss of hair, parotidomegaly, spider naevi,
gynaecomastia, testicul ar atrophy, flapping tremors etc) and any evidence of malabsorption (pallor, nail and skin
changes, angular cheilitis, pedal edema) will entail rejection. The condition of oral mucosa, gums and any restriction
of mouth opening should be noted.
4. Gastro -Duode nal Disabilities . Candidates who are suffering or have suffered, during the previous one year, from
symptoms suggestive of acid -peptic disease including proven peptic ulcers, are not to be accepted. Any past surgical
procedure involving partial or total lo ss of an organ (other than vestigial organs/ gall bladder) will entail rejection.
5. Diseases of the Liver . If past history of jaundice is noted or any abnormality of the liver function is suspected, full
investigation is required for assessment. Candidates suffering from viral hepatitis or any other form of jaundice will
be rejected. Such candidates can be declared fit after a minimum period of 6 months has elapsed provided there is full
clinical recovery; HBV and HCV status are both negative and liver func tions are within normal limits. History of
recurrent jaundice and hyperbilirubinemia of any nature is unfit.
6. Disease of the Spleen . Candidates who have undergone partial/ total splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of the
cause for operation.
7. Hernia . Hernial sites are to be examined for presence of inguinal, epigastric, umbilical and femoral hernia. Any
abdominal wall hernia is unfit. A candidate with a wellhealed surgical scar, after 06 months of either open or
laparoscopic repair (Anterior Abdominal wall he rnia-24 weeks) is considered fit provided there is no evidence of
recurrence and the abdominal wall musculature is good.
8. Abdominal Surgery
(a) A candidate with well -healed scar after conventional abdominal surgery will be considered fit after one
year of successful surgery provided there is no potential for any recurrence of the underlying pathology, no
evidence of incisional hernia and the condition of the abdominal wall musculature is good.
(b) A candidate after laparoscopic cholecystectomy will be c onsidered fit if 08 weeks have passed since
surgery provided they are free from signs and symptoms and their evaluation including LFT and USG
abdomen are normal and there is total absence of gall bladder with no intra -abdominal collection. Other
abdominal laparoscopic procedures can also be considered fit after 08 weeks of surgery provided the
individual is asymptomatic, recovery is complete and there is no residual complication or evidence of
recurrence.
9. Anorectal Conditions . The examiner should do a digital rectal examination and rule out haemorrhoids, sentinel
piles, anal skin tags, fissures, sinuses, fistulae, prolapsed, rectal mass or polyps.
(a) Fit
(i) Only external skin tags.
(ii) After rectal surgery for polyps, haemorrhoids, fissure, fistula or ulcer, provided there is no
residual/ recurrent disease.
(iii) After Anal Fissure surgery: Gd IV Hemorrhoids: 12 weeks
(iv) Pilonidal Sinus: After 12 weeks of surgery
(b) Unfit
(i) Rectal prolapse even after surgical correction
(ii) Active anal fissure
(iii) Haemorrhoids (external or internal)
(iv) Anal Fistula
(v) Anal or rectal polyp
(vi) Anal stricture
(vii) Faecal incontinence
Ultrasonography of Abdomen
10. Liver
(a) Fit
(i) Normal echo -anatomy of the liver, CBD, IHBR, portal and hepatic veins wit h liver span not
exceeding 15 cm in the mid - clavicular line.
(ii) Solitary simple cyst (thin wall, anechoic) upto 2.5 cm diameter provided that the LFT is normal
and hydatid serology is negative.
(iii) Hepatic calcifications to be considered fit if soli tary and less than 1 cm with no evidence of
active disease like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, hydatid disease or liver abscess based on relevant
clinical examinations and appropriate investigations.
(b) Unfit
(i) Hepatomegaly more than 15 cm in mid -clavicular li ne.
(ii) Fatty liver – Grade 2 and 3, grade 1 in presence of abnormal LFT.
(iii) Solitary cyst > 2.5 cm.
(iv) Solitary cyst of any size with thick walls, septations, papillary projections, calcifications and
debris.
(v) Multiple hepatic calcifications or cluster > 1 cm.
(vi) Multiple hepatic cysts of any size.
(vii) Any haemangioma irrespective of the size and location.
(viii) Portal vein thrombosis.
(ix) Evidence of portal hypertension (PV >13 mm, collaterals, ascites).
11. Gall Bladder
(a) Fit
(i) Normal echo -anatomy of the gall bladder .
(ii) Post Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy . 08 weeks (Normal LFT, normal histopathology)
(iii) Post Open Cholecystectomy . 24 weeks (In the absence of incisional hernia)
(b) Unfit
(i) Cholelithiasis or biliary sludge.
(ii) Choledocolithiasis.
(iii) Polyp of any si ze and number.
(iv) Choledochal cyst.
(v) Gall bladder mass.
(vi) Gall bladder wall thickness > 05 mm.
(vii) Septate gall bladder.
(viii) Persistently contracted gall bladder on repeat USG.
(ix) Incomplete Cholecystectomy.
(x) Agenesis of Gall Bladder Will be considered fit in the absence of any other abnormality of the biliary
tract. MRCP will be done for all cases.
12. Spleen
(a) Unfit
(i) Spleen more than 13 cm in longitudinal axis (or if clinically palpable).
(ii) Any Space Occupying Lesion in the spleen.
(iii) Asplenia.
(iv) Candidates who have undergone partial/ total splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of the cause of operation.
13. Pancreas
(a) Unfit
(i) Any structural abnormality.
(ii) Space Occupying Lesion/ Mass lesion.
(iii) Features of chronic pancreatitis (calcification, ductal abnormal ity, atrophy).
14. Peritoneal Cavity
(a) Unfit
(i) Ascites.
(ii) Solitary mesenteric or retroperitoneal lymph node >1 cm. (Single retroperitoneal LN <1 cm and normal in
architecture may be considered fit).
(iii) Two or more lymph nodes of any size
(iv) Any mass or cyst.
15. Major Abdominal Vasculature (Aorta/ IVC) . Any structural abnormality, focal ectasia, aneurysm and
calcification will be considered as unfit.
16. Appendicectomy
(i) Laparoscopic Appendectomy will be assessed for post -operative fitness after a minimum p eriod of 04 weeks.
Candidates will be considered fit if: -
(aa) Post site scars have healed well
(ab) Scars are supple
(ac) Histo -pathological report of acute appendicitis is available.
(ad) USG confirmation of absence od port site incisional hernia
(ii) Open Appendectomy with muscle split approach will be assessed for post op fitness after a minimum period
12 weeks. Candidates will be considered fit if: -
(aa) Wound has healed well
(ab) Scar is supple and non tender
(ac) Histo -pathological report of acute appendicitis is available
(ad) USG confirmation of absence of surgical site incisional hernia
(iii) Open Appendectomy with muscle cut approach will be assessed for post op fitness after a minimum
period 06 months. Candidates will be considered fit if: -
(aa) Wound has healed well
(ab) Scar is supple and non tender
(ac) Histo -pathological report of acute appendicitis is available
(ad) USG confirmation of absence of surgical site incisional hernia
UROGENITAL SYSTEM
1. Enquiry should be made about any alteration in micturition or urinary stream e.g. dysuria, frequency, poor stream
etc. Recurrent attacks of cystitis; pyelonephritis and haematuria must be excluded from history. Detailed enquiry must
be made about any history of renal colic, attacks of acute nephrit is, any operation on the renal tract including loss of a
kidney, passing of stones or urethral discharges. If there is any history of enuresis, past or present, full details must be
obtained. History of urethral discharge and Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) should be elicited.
2. The external genitalia should be meticulously examined to rule out the presence of congenital anomalies e.g.
hypospadias, epispadias, ambiguous genitalia, undescended testis (UDT) or ectopic testis etc. Conditions like
hydrocele, varicocele, epididymal cyst, phimosis, urethral stricture, meatal stenosis etc should also be ruled out. The
criteria to be followed are as follows:
(a) Undescended testis (UDT)
(i) Unfit – Any abnormal position of testis (unilateral or bilateral) is un fit. Bilateral orchidectomy due
to any cause such as trauma, torsion or infection is unfit.
(ii) Fit - Operatively corrected UDT may be considered fit at least 04 weeks after surgery, provided
after surgical correction, the testis is normal in location and the wound has healed well. Unilateral
atrophic testis/ unilateral orchidectomy for benign cause may be considered fit, provided other testis is
normal in size, fixation and location.
(b) Varicocele
(i) Unfit – All grades of current varicocele.
(ii) Fit - Post-operative cases of varicocele with no residual varicocele and no post op complication or
testicular atrophy may be made fit after 08 weeks of surgery, for sub -inguinal varicocoelectomy.
(c) Hydrocele
(i) Unfit – Current hydrocele on any side.
(ii) Fit - Operated cases of hydrocele may be made fit after 08 weeks of surgery, if there are no post -op
complications and wound has healed well.
(d) Epididymal Cyst/ Mass, Spermatocele
(i) Unfit – Current presence of cyst / mass.
(ii) Fit – Post operative ca ses, where wound has healed well, there is no recurrence and only when benign on
histopathology report.
(e) Epididymitis/ Orchitis
(i) Unfit – Presence of current orchitis or epididymitis/ tuberculosis.
(ii) Fit – After treatment, provided the condition has resolv ed completely.
(f) Epispadias/ Hypospadias
(i) Unfit – All are unfit, except glanular variety of hypospadias and epispadias, which is acceptable.
(ii) – Post-operative cases at least 08 weeks after successful surgery, provided recovery is complete and there are
no complications.
(g) Penile Amputation . Any amputation will make the candidate unfit.
(h) Phimosis
(i) Unfit – Current phimosis, if tight enough to interfere with local hygiene and voiding and/ or associated with
Balanitis Xerotica Obliterans.
(ii) Fit – Operat ed cases will be considered fit after 04 weeks of surgery, provided wound is fully healed and no
post-op complications are seen.
(j) Meatal Stenosis
(i) Unfit – Current disease, if small enough to interfere with voiding.
(ii) Fit – Mild disease not interfering w ith voiding and post -operative cases after a period of 04 weeks of surgery
with adequately healed wound and no post op complications.
(k) Stricture Urethra, Urethral Fistula . Any history of / current cases or post -op cases are unfit.
(l) Sex reassignme nt surgery/ Intersex condition . Unfit
(m) Nephrectomy . All cases, irrespective of the type of surgery (Simple/ radical/ donor/ partial/ RFA/ cryo -ablation)
are unfit.
(n) Renal Transplant Recipients . Unfit
(o) Urachal Cyst :08 Weeks (To be declared fit in the absence of any remnant)
3. Urine Examination
(a) Proteinuria . Proteinuria will be a cause for rejection, unless it proves to be orthostatic.
(b) Glycosuria . When glycosuria is detected, a blood sugar examination (fasting and after 75 g glucose) a nd
glycosylated Hb is to be carried out, and fitness decided as per results. Renal glycosuria is not a cause for
rejection.
(c) Urinary Infections . When the candidate has history or evidence of urinary infection it will entail full renal
investigation . Persistent evidence of urinary infection will entail rejection.
(d) Haematuria . Candidates with history of haematuria will be subjected to full renal investigation.
4. Glomerulonephritis
(a) Acute . In this condition there is a high rate of recovery in the acute phase, particularly in childhood. A
candidate who has made a complete recovery and has no proteinuria may be assessed fit, after a minimum period
of one year after full recovery.
(b) Chronic . Candidate with chronic glomerulonephritis will be reje cted.
5. Renal Calculi. Irrespective of size, numbers, obstructive or non -obstructive, history of renal calculi (history or
radiological evidence) will render a candidate Unfit.
6. Sexual Transmitted Diseases and Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV).
Serop ositive HIV status and/ or evidence of STD will entail rejection.
Ultrasonography of the Abdomen - Urogenital System
7. Kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder
(a) Unfit
(i) Congenital structural abnormalities of kidneys or urinary tract
(aa) Unilatera l renal agenesis.
(ab) Unilateral or bilateral hypoplastic/ contracted kidney of size less than 08 cm.
(ac) Malrotation of kidney.
(ad) Horseshoe kidney.
(ae) Ptosed kidney.
(af) Crossed fused/ ectopic kidney.
(ii) Simple renal cyst> 1.5 cm
(ii) Com plex cyst/ polycystic disease/ multiple or bilateral cysts.
(iii) Renal/ ureteric/ vesical mass.
(iv) Hydronephrosis or Hydroureteronephrosis.
(v) Calculi - Renal/ Ureteric/ Vesical.
(vi) Calyectasis
(b) Fit - Solitary, unilateral, simple renal cyst <1.5 cm provided the cyst is peripherally located, round/ oval, with
thin smooth wall and no loculations, with posterior enhancement, no debris, no septa and no solid component.
(c) During Appeal Medical Board/ Review Medical Board unfit candidates will be subjected to specif ic
investigations and detailed clinical examination. Candidates having isolated abnormality of echo texture of
Kidney may be considered fit if Renal Function, DTPA scan and CECT kidney is normal.
8. Scrotum and Testis . The following cases will be made unfit:
(a) Bilateral atrophied testis.
(b) Varicocele (Unilateral or bilateral).
(c) Any abnormal location of testis (Unilateral or Bilateral).
(d) Hydrocele
(e) Epididymal lesions e.g. cyst.
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
1. History should be carefully elicited for any endocrine condition s particularly Diabetes Mellitus, disorders of thyroid
and adrenal glands, gonads etc. Any history suggestive of endocrine disorders will be a cause for rejection. In case of
any doubt, Medical Spl/ Endocrinologist opinion should be taken.
2. A thorough clini cal examination to detect any obvious disease of the endocrine system should be carried out. Any
clinical evidence of endocrine disease will be unfit.
3. All cases of thyroid swelling having abnormal iodine uptake and abnormal thyroid hormone levels will be rejected.
All cases of thyroid swelling are unfit.
4. Candidates detected to have diabetes mellitus will be rejected. A candidate with a family history of Diabetes
Mellitus will be subjected to blood sugar (Fasting and after Glucose load) and HbA1c evaluatio n, which will be
recorded.
DERMATOLOGICAL SYSTEM
1. Careful interrogation followed by examination of the candidate’s skin is necessary to obtain a clear picture of the
nature and severity of any dermatological condition claimed or found. Borderline skin co nditions should be referred to
a dermatologist. Candidates who give history of sexual exposure to a Commercial Sex Worker (CSW), or have
evidence of healed penile sore in the form of a scar should be declared permanently unfit, even in absence of an overt
STD, as these candidates are likely ‘repeaters’ with similar indulgent promiscuous behavior.
2. Assessment of Diseases of the Skin . Acute non -exanthematous and non -communicable diseases, which ordinarily
run a temporary course, need not be a cause of reject ion. Diseases of a trivial nature, and those, which do not interfere
with general health or cause incapacity, do not entail rejection.
3. Certain skin conditions are apt to become active and incapacitating under tropical conditions. An individual is
unsuita ble for service if he has a definite history or signs of chronic or recurrent skin disease. Some of such conditions
are described below: -
(a) Some amount of PalmoplantarHyperhydrosis is physiological, considering the situation that recruits face
during medical examination. However, candidates with significant PalmoplantarHyperhydrosis should be
considered unfit.
(b) Mild (Grade I) acne consisting of few comedones or papules, localized only to the face may be acceptable.
However, moderate to severe degree of acne (nodulocystic type with or without keloidal scarring) or involving
the back should be considered unfit.
(c) Any degree of palmoplantarkeratoderma manifesting with hyperkeratotic and fissured skin over the palms,
soles and heels should be considered unfit.
(d) Ichthyosis involving the upper and lower limbs, with evident dry, scaly, fissured skin should be considered
unfit. Mild xerosis (dry skin) could be considered fit.
(e) Candidates having any keloid should be considered unfit.
(f) Clinically evident onychomycosis of finger and toe -nails should be declared unfit, especially if associated
with nail dystrophy. Mild degree of distal discoloration involving single nail without any dystrophy may be
acceptable.
(g) Giant congenital melanocytic naevi, greater than 10 cm sh ould be considered unfit, as there is a malignant
potential in such large sized naevi.
(h) Single corns/ Warts/ Callosities will be considered fit, three months after successful treatment and no
recurrence. However, candidates with multiple warts/ corns/ cal losities on palms and soles or diffuse
palmoplantar mosaic warts, large callosities on pressure areas of palms and soles should be rejected.
(j) Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition known to relapse and/or recur and hence should be considered unfit.
(k) Candid ates suffering from minor degree of Leukoderma affecting the covered parts may be accepted.
Vitiligo limited only to glans penis and prepuce may be considered fit. Those having extensive degree of skin
involvement and especially, when the exposed parts are affected, even to a minor degree, should be made unfit.
4. A history of chronic or recurrent episodes of skin infections will be cause for rejection. Folliculitis or sycosisbarbae
from which there has been complete recovery may be considered fit.
5. Individuals who have chronic or frequently recurring episodes of a skin disease of a serious or incapacitating nature
e.g. eczema are to be assessed as permanently unfit and rejected.
6. Any sign of Leprosy will be a cause for rejection. All peripheral nerves should be examined for any thickness of the
nerves and any clinical evidence suggestive of leprosy is a ground for rejection.
7. Naevusdepigmentosus and Beckersnaevus may be considered fit. Intradermal naevus, vascular naevi are to be made
unfit.
8. PityriasisVersicolo r is to be made unfit.
9. Any fungal infection (like TineaCruris and TineaCorporis) of any part of the body will be unfit.
10. Scrotal Eczema may be considered fit on recovery.
11. Canities (premature graying of hair) may be considered fit if mild in nature and no systemic association is seen.
12. Intertrigo may be considered fit on recovery.
13. Genital Ulcers should be considered unfit. Anal and perianal area should also be included as a part of genital
examination to rule out STD.
14. Scabies may be considered fit only on recovery.
15. Alopecia areata single and small (<2 cm in diameter) lesion on scalp can be accepted. However if multiple,
involving other areas or having scarring, the candidate should be rejected.
RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERY
(a) Gynaecomastia : Candidates to be c onsidered fit after 12 weeks of post -operative period if: -
(i) There is a well healed surgical wound with no residual disease
(ii) No post operative complication
(iii) Surgical scar should be sufficiently matured and unlikely to cause any problems during military training
(iv) Normal general physical examination
(v) Endocrine workup is normal
(b) Polymazia . Candidates to be considered fit after 12 weeks of post operative period if there is no post
operative complication with a well healed surgical wound an d no residual disease.
MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM AND PHYSICAL CAPACITY
1. Assessment of the candidate’s physique is to be based upon careful observation of such general parameters as
apparent muscular development, age, height, weight and the correlation of t his i.e. potential ability to acquire physical
stamina with training. The candidate’s physical capacity is affected by general physical development or by any
constitutional or pathological condition.
SPINAL CONDITIONS
2. Past medical history of disease or injury of the spine or sacroiliac joints, either with or without objective signs,
which has prevented the candidate from successfully following a physically active life, is a cause for rejection for
commissioning. History of recurrent lumbago/ spinal fr acture/ prolapsed intervertebral disc and surgical treatment for
these conditions will entail rejection.
Evaluation of Spine
3. Clinical Examination . Normal thoracic kyphosis and cervical/ lumbar lordosis are barely noticeable and not
associated with pain or restriction of movement.
(a) If clinical examination reveals restriction of spine movements, deformities, tenderness of the spine or any gait
abnormalities, it will be considered unfit.
(b) Gross kyphosis, affecting military bearing/ restricts full range of s pinal movements and/or expansion of chest
is unfit.
(c) Scoliosis is unfit, if deformity persists on full flexion of the spine, when associated with restricted range of
spine movements or when due to an underlying pathological cause. When scoliosis is noticeab le or any
pathological condition of the spine is suspected, radiographic examination of the appropriate part of the spine
needs to be carried out.
(d) Spina Bifida . The following markers should be looked for, on clinical examination and corroborated with
radiological evaluation:
(i) Congenital defects overlying the spine e.g. hypertrichosis, skin dimpling, haemangioma, pigmented
naevus or dermal sinus.
(ii) Presence of lipoma over spine.
(iii) Palpable spina bifida.
(iv) Abnormal findings on neurological examination.
4.Radiogr aph Spine . For flying duties, radiograph (AP and lateral views) of cervical, thoracic and lumbosacral spine
is to be carried out
5. Spinal Conditions Unfit for Air Force Duties (Both Flying and Ground Duties)
(a) Congenital/ Developmental Anomalies
(i) Wedge Vertebra
(ii) Hemivertebra
(iii) Anterior Central Defect
(iv) Cervical Ribs (Unilateral/ Bilateral) with demonstrable neurological or circulatory deficit
(v) Spinabifida: - All types are unfit except in sacrum and LV5 (if completely sacralised)
(vi) Loss of Cervical Lordosis when assessed with clinically restricted movement of cervical spine.
(vii) Scoliosis: -
Assessment of scoliosis. Idiopathic scoliosis upto 10 degrees for Lumbar Spine and 15 degrees of Dorsal
Spine will be acceptable provided:
(a) Individual is asymptomatic
(b) No his tory of trauma to spine
(c) No chest asymmetry/shoulder imbalance or pelvic obliquity in the lumbar spine.
(d) There is no neurological deficit
(e) No congenital anomaly of the spine
(f) There is absence of syndromic features
(g) ECG is normal
(h) No defor mity exists on full flexion of the spine
(j) No restriction of range of movements
(k) No organic defect causing structural abnormality
(viii) Atlanto -occipital and Atlanto -axial anomalies
(ix) Incomplete Block (fused) vertebra at any level in cervical, dorsal or lumba r spine. \
(x) Complete Block (fused) vertebra at more than one level in cervical or dorsal spine. (Single level is
acceptable. Annotation is to be made in AFMSF -2)
(xi) Unilateral sacralisation or lumbarisation (complete or incomplete) and Bilateral incomplete sacr alisation
or lumbarisation (LSTV - Castellvi Type II a & b, III a & IV) (Bilateral Complete Sacralisation of LV5 and
Bilateral Complete Lumbarisation of SV1 i.e LSTV Castellvi Type III b and Type I a & b are acceptable
(Annotation is to be made in AFMSF -2)
(b) Traumatic Conditions
(ii) Spondylolysis/ Spondylolisthesis
(iii) Compression fracture of vertebra
(iv) Intervertebral Disc Prolapse
(v) Schmorl’s Nodes at more than one level
(c) Infective
(i) Tuberculosis and other Granulomatous disease of spine (old or active)
(ii) Infective S pondylitis
(d) Autoimmune
(i) Rheumatoid Arthritis and allied disorders
(ii) Ankylosing spondylitis
(iii) Other rheumatological disorders of spine e.g. Polymyositis, SLE and Vasculitis
(e) Degenerative
(i) Spondylosis
(ii) Degenerative Joint Disorders
(iii) Degenerative Disc Disease
(iv) Osteoarthrosis/ osteoarthritis
(v) Scheuerman’s Disease (Adolescent Kyphosis)
(f) Any other spinal abnormality, if so considered by the specialist .
CONDITIONS AFFECTING THE ASSESSMENT OF UPPER LIMBS
7. Deformities of the upper limbs or their parts will be c ause for rejection. Candidate with an amputation of a limb will
not be accepted for entry. Amputation of terminal phalanx of little finger on both sides is, however, acceptable.
8. Healed Fractures
(a) All intra -articular fractures especially of major j oints (Shoulder, elbow, wrist, hip, knee and
ankle) with or without surgery, with or without implant shall be considered unfit.
(b) All extra -articular fractures with post -operative implant in -situ shall be considered unfit and
will be considered for fitne ss after minimum of 12 weeks of implant removal.
(c) Nine (09) months will be the minimum duration for considering evaluation following extra -
articular injuries of all long bones (both upper and lower limbs) post injury which have been
managed conservative ly. Individual will be considered fit if there is: -
(i) No evidence of mal alignment/malunion
(ii) No neuro vascular deficit
(iii) No soft tissue loss
(iv) No function deficit
(v) No evidence of osteomyelitis/sequestra formation
(d) Fracture of the upper limb , presenting 06 months after the injury with none of the sequelae as
mentioned above are acceptable after assessment by orthopaedic surgeon.
9. Fingers and Hands .
(a) Polydactyly Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post op. Can be declared fit if there is no bony
abnormality(X -Ray), wound is well healed, scar is supple and there is no evidence of neuroma on
clinical examination.
(b) Simple syndactyly Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post op. Can be declared fit if there is
no bony abnormality (X -Ray), wound is healed, scar is supple and webspace is satisfactory.
(c) Complex syndactyly Unfit
(d) Hyperextensible finger joints All candidates shall be thoroughly examined for hyperextensible
finger joints. Any extension of fingers bending backwards beyond 90 degrees shall be considered
hyper extensible and considered unfit. Other joints like knee, elbow, spine and thumb shall also be
examined carefully for features of hyper laxity/ hypermobility. Although the individual may not
show features of hyper laxity i n other joints, isolated presentation of hyper extensibility of finger
joints shall be considered unfit because of the various ailments that may manifest later if such
candidates are subjected to strenuous physical training.
(e) Mallet Finger Loss of exten sor mechanism at the distal interphalangeal joint leads to Mallet
finger. Chronic mallet deformity can lead to secondary changes in the PIP and MCP joint which can
result in compromised hand function. Normal range of movement at DIP joints is 0 -80 degree & PIP
joint is 0 -90 degrees in both flexion and extension. In Mallet finger candidate is unable to
extend/straighten distal phalanx of fingers completely.
(f) Candidates with mild condition i.e less than 10 degrees of extension lag without any evidence of
trauma, pressure symptoms and any functional deficit should be declared Fit.
(g) Candidates with fixed deformity of fingers will be declared unfit.
10. Wrist. Painless limitation of movement of the wrist will be assessed according to the degree of stiffness.
Loss of dorsiflexion is more serious than loss of palmar flexion.
11. Elbow .
Hyperextension at elbow joint: Individuals can have naturally hyperextended elbow. This condition is not a
medical problem, but can be a cause of fracture or chronic pain especiall y considering the stress and strains
military population is involved in. Also, the inability to return the elbow to within 10 degrees of the neutral
position is impairment in the activities of daily living.
(a) Measurement modality: Measured using a goniom eter
(b) Recommendation: Normal elbow extension is 0 degrees. Up to 10 degrees of hyperextension is
within normal limits if the patient has no history of trauma to the joint. Anyone with hyperextension
more than 10 degrees should be unfit.
12. CubitusVarus of > 5 degree will be unfit.
13. Cubitus recurvatum Cubitus recurvatum > 10 degrees is unfit
14. Shoulder Girdle . History of recurrent dislocation of shoulder with or without corrective surgery will be
unfit.
15. Clavicle . Non -union of an old fracture clavicle will entai l rejection. Mal -united clavicle fracture without
loss of function and without obvious deformity are acceptable.
CONDITIONS AFFECTING THE ASSESSMENT OF LOWER LIMBS
16. Hallux valgus with angle >20 degrees and first -second metatarsal angle of >10 degrees is unfit. Hallux valgus of
any degree with bunion, corns or callosities is unfit.
17. Hallux rigidus is unfit for service.
18. Isolated single flexible mild hammer toe without symptoms may be accepted. Fixed (rigid) deformity or hammer
toe associated wi th corns, callosities, mallet toes or hyperextension at meta -tarso -phalangeal joint (claw toe deformity)
are to be rejected.
19. Loss of any digits/ toes entails rejection.
20. Extra digits will entail rejection if there is bony continuity with adjacent digits. Cases of syndactyly will be
rejected.
21. Pes Planus (Flat feet)
(a) If the arches of the feet reappear on standing on toes, if the candidate can skip and run well on the toes
and if the feet are supple, mobile and painless, the candidate is acceptab le.
(b) Rigid or fixed flat feet, gross flat feet, with planovalgus, eversion of heel, cannot balance himself on toes,
cannot skip on the forefoot, tender painful tarsal joints, prominent head of talus will be considered unfit.
Restriction of the movements of the foot will also be a cause for rejection. Rigidity of the foot, whatever may
be the shape of the foot, is a cause for rejection.
22. Pes Cavus and Talipes (Club Foot). Mild degree of idiopathic pescavus without any functional limitation is
acceptable . Moderate and severe pescavus and pescavus due to organic disease will entail rejection. All cases of
Talipes (Club Foot) will be rejected.
23. Ankle Joints . Any significant limitation of movement following previous injuries will not be accepted.
Functi onal evaluation with imaging should be carried out wherever necessary.
24. Knee Joint . Any ligamentous laxity is not accepted. Candidates who have undergone ACL reconstruction surgery
are to be considered unfit.
25. Genu valgum (knock knee) with intermal leolar distance > 5 cm in males and > 8 cm in females will be unfit.
26. Genu varum (bow legs) with intercondylar distance >7 cm will be considered unfit.
27. Genu Recurvatum. If the hyperextension of the knee is within 10 degrees and is unaccompanied b y any other
deformity, the candidate should be accepted as fit.
28. True lesions of the hip joint or early signs of arthritis will entail rejection.
29. Peripheral Vascular System
(a) Varicose Veins . All cases with active varicose veins will be declared unf it. Post -op cases of varicose veins
also remain unfit.
(b) Arterial System . Current or history of abnormalities of the arteries and blood vessels e.g. aneurysms,
arteritis and peripheral arterial disease will be considered unfit.
(c) Lymphoedema. History of past / current disease makes the candidate unfit.
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. A candidate giving a history of mental illness/ psychological afflictions requires detailed investigation and
psychiatric referral. Such cases should normally be rejected. Most often the history is not volunteered. The examiner
should try to elicit a history by direct questioning, which may or may not be fruitful. Every examiner should form a
general impression of the candidate’s personality as a whole and may enquire into an individual’ s stability and
habitual reactions to difficult and stressful situations. Family history and prior history of using medication is also
relevant.
2. History of insomnia, phobias, nightmares or frequent sleepwalking or Bedwetting, when recurrent or persistent, will
be a cause for rejection.
3. Common types of recurrent headaches are those due to former head injury or migraine. Other forms of occasional
headache must be considered in relation to their probable cause. A candidate with migraine, which was severe enou gh
to make him consult his doctor, should normally be a cause for rejection. Even a single attack of migraine with visual
disturbance or Migrainous epilepsy is to be made unfit.
4. History of epilepsy in a candidate is a cause for rejection. Convulsions/ f its after the age of five are also a cause for
rejection. Convulsions in infancy may not be of ominous nature provided it appears that the convulsions were febrile
convulsions and were not associated with any overt neurological deficit. Causes of epilepsy include genetic factors,
traumatic brain injury, stroke, infection, demyelinating and degenerative disorders, birth defects, substance abuse and
withdrawal seizures. Enquiry should not be limited only to the occurrence of major attacks. Seizures may masq uerade
as ― “faints” and therefore the frequency and the conditions under which ― “faints” took place must be elicited.
Such attacks will be made unfit, whatever their apparent nature. An isolated fainting attack calls for enquiry into all
the attendant factors to distinguish between syncope and seizures e.g. fainting in school are of common occurrence
and may have little significance. Complex partial seizures, which may manifest as vegetative movements as lip
smacking, chewing, staring, dazed appearance and periods of unresponsiveness, are criteria for making the candidate
unfit.
5. History of repeated attacks of heat stroke, hyperpyrexia or heat exhaustion bars employment for Air Force duties, as
it is an evidence of a faulty heat regulating mechanism. A single severe attack of heat effects, provided the history of
exposure was severe, and no permanent sequelae were evident is, by itself, not a reason for rejecting the candidate.
6. A history of severe head injury is a cause for rejection. Other sequelae of h ead injury like post -concussion
syndrome, focal neurological deficit and post traumatic epilepsy should be noted which may be associated with
subjective symptoms of headache, giddiness, insomnia, restlessness, irritability, poor concentration and attention
deficits. Post traumatic neuropsychological impairment can also occur which includes deficits in attention
concentration, information processing speeds, mental flexibility and frontal lobe executive functions and psychosocial
functioning. Neuropsycholog ical testing including pyschometry can assess these aspects. It is important to realize
that sequelae may persist for considerable period and may even be permanent. Fracture of the skull need not be a
cause for rejection unless there is a history of associ ated intracranial damage or any residual bony defect in the
calvaria.
7. When there is a history of severe injury or an associated convulsive attack, an electroencephalogram should be
carried out which must be normal. Presence of burr holes will be cause for rejection for flying duties, but not for
ground duties. Each case is to be judged on individual merits. Opinion of Neurosurgeon and Psychiatrist must be
obtained before acceptance.
8. When a history of nervous breakdown, mental disease, or suicide of a near relative is obtained, a careful
investigation of the personal past history from a psychological point of view is to be obtained. Any evidence of even
the slightest psychological instability in the personal history or present condition should entail reject ion and the
candidate should be referred to the psychiatrist for further evaluation.
9. If a family history of epilepsy is admitted, an attempt should be made to determine its type. When the condition has
occurred in a near (first degree) relative, the candi date may be accepted, if he has no history of associated disturbance
of consciousness, neurological deficit or higher mental functions and his electroencephalogram is completely normal.
10. The assessment of emotional stability must include family and personal history, any indication of emotional
instability under stress as evidenced by the occurrence of undue emotionalism as a child or of any previous nervous
illness or breakdown. The presence of stammering, tic, nail biting, excessive hyperhydrosis or restle ssness during
examination could be indicative of emotional instability and should be made unfit.
11. All candidates who are suffering from psychosis are to be rejected. Drug dependence in any form will also be a
cause for rejection.
12. Psychoneurosis . Mentally unstable and neurotic individuals are unfit for commissioning. Juvenile and adult
delinquency, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill -health is causes for rejection. Particular attention should be
paid to such factors as unhappy childhood, poor fami ly background, truancy, juvenile and adult delinquency, poor
employment and social maladjustment records, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill -health, particularly if these
have interfered with employment in the past.
13. Any evident neurological defici t should call for rejection.
14. Tremors are rhythmic oscillatory movements of reciprocally innervated muscle groups. Two categories are
recognized: normal or physiologic and abnormal or pathologic. Fine tremor is present in all contracting muscle
groups, it persists throughout the waking state, the movement is fine between 8 to 13 Hz. Pathologic tremor is coarse,
between 4 to 7 Hz and usually affects the distal part of limbs. Gross tremors are generally due to enhanced
physiological causes where, at the same frequency, the amplitude of the tremor is grossly enhanced and is elicited by
outstretching the arms and fingers which are spread apart. This occurs in cases of excessive fright, anger, anxiety,
intense physical exertion, metabolic disturbances including h yperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal and toxic effects of
lithium, smoking (nicotine) and excessive tea, coffee. Other causes of coarse tremor are Parkinsonism, cerebellar
tremors (intentional tremors), essential (familial) tremor, tremors of neuropathy and postural or action tremors.
15. Candidates with stammering will not be accepted for Air Force duties. Careful assessment by ENT Specialist,
Speech therapist, psychologist/ psychiatrist may be required in doubtful cases.
16. Basal Electroencephalogram (EEG) . EEG is to be recorded for candidates for aircrew duties only in case there
is a history of epilepsy in the family, past history of head injury and/or any other psychological or neurological
abnormality noted in the past. These aspects will be carefully enqu ired into. In case of other candidates also, EEG can
be taken if indicated or considered necessary by the medical examiner. Those with following EEG abnormalities in
resting EEG or EEG under provocative techniques will be rejected for aircrew duties: -
(a) Background Activity. Focal, excessive and high amplitude beta activity/hemispherical asymmetry of
more than 2.3 Hz/generalized and focal runs of slow waves approaching background activity in amplitude.
(b) Hyperventilation. Paroxysmal spikes and slow waves/sp ikes/focal spike pattern.
(c) Photo Stimulation. Bilaterally synchronous or focal paroxysmal spikes and slow waves persisting in
post-photic stimulation period/suppression or driving response over one hemisphere.
17. Non specific EEG abnormality will be ac ceptable provided opinion of Neuropsychiatrist/ Neurophysician is
obtained. The findings of EEG will be entered in AFMSF -2. In case an EEG is reported as abnormal, the cadet would
be referred to CHAF (B) for a comprehensive evaluation by neurophysician fol lowed by review by a Board at IAM
IAF.
18. Hyperstosis frontalis interna . Will be considered fit in the absence of any other metabolic abnormality
EAR, NOSE AND THROAT
1. History. Any significant history of otorrhoea, hearing loss, vertigo including motion sickness, tinnitus etc is to be
elicited.
2. Nose and Para -nasal Sinuses . The following entails rejection:
(a) Gross external deformity of nose causing cosmetic deformity may be rejected if it adversely impacts
military bearing. However, minor deformities of dorsum and nasal tip should not be a cause of rejection.
(b) Obstruction to free breathing as a result of a marked septal deviation. Post corrective surgery with
residual mild deviation with adequate airway patency will be acceptable.
(c) Septal perforat ion: Nasal septal perforation can be anterior cartilaginous or posterior bony perforation.
Any septal perforation greater than 01 cm in the greatest dimension is a ground for rejection. A septal
perforation which is associated with nasal deformity, nasal c rusting, epistaxis and granulation irrespective of
the size is a ground for rejection.
(c) Atrophic rhinitis.
(d) Any history/clinical evidence suggestive of allergic rhinitis/ vasomotor rhinitis will entail rejection.
(e) Any infection of the para -nasal sinuses wil l be declared unfit. Such cases may be accepted following
successful treatment at the Appeal Medical Board.
(g) Nasal polyposis: It is also known as Chronic Rhinosinusitis with polyposis (CRSwNP). Nasal polyposis
is mostly associated with allergy, asthma , sensitivity to NSAIDs and infection i.e bacterial and fungal. Most
of these patients have high chances of recurrence and require long term management with nasal/oral steroids
and are unfit for extremes of climate and temperature conditions. Any individua l detected to have nasal
polyposis on examination or with history of having undergone surgery for nasal polyposis will be rejected.
3. Oral Cavity
(a) Unfit
(i) Current/ operated cases of leukoplakia, erythroplakia, submucous fibrosis, ankyloglossia and oral
carcinoma.
(ii) Current oral ulcers/ growths and mucous retention cysts.
(iii) Trismus due to any cause.
(iv) Cleft palate, even after surgical correction.
(b) Fit
(i) Completely healed oral ulcers.
(ii) Operated cases of mucus retention cyst with no recurrence and proven ben ign histology. Evaluation in
these cases should be done after minimum 04 weeks post -surgery.
(iii) Sub-mucous cleft of palate with or without bifid uvula not causing Eustachian tube dysfunction may be
accepted by ENT specialist, provided PTA, tympanometry and s peech are normal.
4. Pharynx and Larynx . The following conditions will entail rejection:
(a) Any ulcerative/ mass lesion of the pharynx.
(b) Candidates in whom tonsillectomy is indicated. Such candidates may be accepted minimum 02 weeks after
successful surgery provided there are no complications and histology is benign.
(c) Cleft palate.
(d) Any disabling condition of the pharynx or larynx causing persistent hoarseness or dysphonia.
(e) Chronic laryngitis, vocal cord palsy, laryngeal polyps and growths.
5. Obstruction or insufficiency of Eustachian tube function will be a cause for rejection. Altitude chamber ear
clearance test will be carried out before acceptance in in -service candidates.
6. The presence of tinnitus necessitates investigation of its duration, localizat ion, severity and possible causation.
Persistent tinnitus is a cause for rejection, as it is liable to become worse through exposure to noise and may be a
precursor to Otosclerosis and Meniere’s disease.
7. Specific enquiry should be made for any suscepti bility to motion sickness. An endorsement to this effect should
be made in AFMSF -2. Such cases will be fully evaluated and, if found susceptible to motion sickness, they will be
rejected for flying duties. Any evidence of peripheral vestibular dysfunction due to any cause will entail rejection.
8. A candidate with a history of dizziness needs to be investigated thoroughly.
9 Hearing loss. The following are not acceptable:
(a) Any reduction less than 600 cm in CV/ FW.
(b) Wherever PTA is indicated and thresholds are obtained, the audiometric loss greater than 20 db, in
frequencies between 250 and 8000 Hz.
(c) Free field hearing loss is a cause for rejection.
Note: In evaluating the audiogram, the baseline zero of the audiometer and the environmental noise conditions
under which the audiogram has been obtained should be taken into consideration. On the recommendation of an
ENT Specialist, an isolated unilateral hearing loss up to 30 db may be condoned provided ENT examination is
otherwise normal.
10. Ears. A radical/mo dified radical mastoidectomy entails rejection even if completely epithelialised and good
hearing is preserved. Cases of cortical mastoidectomy in the past with the tympanic membrane intact, normal hearing
and presenting no evidence of disease may be accep ted.
11. External Ear . The following defects of external ear should be declared unfit:
(a) Gross deformity of pinna which may hamper wearing of uniform/ personal kit/ protective equipment, or
which adversely impacts military bearing.
(b) Cases of chronic otiti s externa.
(c) Exostoses, atreisa/ narrowing of EAM or neoplasm preventing a proper examination of the ear drum.
(d) Exaggerated tortuosity of the canal, obliterating the anterior view of the tympanic membrane will be a cause
for rejection.
(e) Granulation or polyp in external auditory canal.
Bony growth of external auditory canal: Any candidate with clinically evident bony growth of external auditory
canal like exostosis, osteoma, fibrous dysplasia etc. will be declared Unfit. Assessment of operated cases will be
done after minimum period of 4 weeks. Post surgery histopathology report and HRCT temporal bone will be
mandatory. If the histopathological report is suggestive of a neoplasia or HRCT temporal bone is suggestive of
partial removal or deep extension, it wo uld entail rejection
12. Middle Ear . The following conditions of middle ear will entail rejection: -
(a) Otitis Media : Current Otitis Media of any type will entail rejection. Evidence of healed chronic otitis media
in the form of tympanosclerosis/scarred ty mpanic membrane effecting less than 50% of pars tensa of tympanic
membrane will be assessed by ENT specialist and will be acceptable if Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA) and
Tympanometry are normal. All cases of tympanoplasty and Myringoplasty/Myringotomy for Chr onic Otitis
Media will entail permanent rejection.
(a) Attic, central or marginal perforation.
(b) Tympanosclerosis or scarring affecting >50 % of the Pars Tensa of TM is unfit even if PTA and
tympanometry are normal. Evidence of healed chronic Otitis Media in th e form of Tympanosclerosis or scarrign
affecting <50 % of Pars Tensa of TM will be assessed by ENT spl and will be acceptable if PTA and
tympanometry are normal. A trial of decompression chamber may be carried out, if indicated, for aircrew,
ATC/FC, submar iners/divers.
(c) Any residual perforation in cases of old otitis media.
(d) Marked retraction or restriction in TM mobility on pneumatic otoscopy.
(e) Any hearing impairment on forced Whisper test.
(f) Deranged pure tone audiometry thresholds.
(g) Tympanometry showing pa tterns other than Type ‘A’ tympanogram.
(h) Any implanted hearing devices e.g. cochlear implants, bone anchored hearing aids etc.
(i) After middle ear surgeries viz. stapedectomy, ossiculoplasty, any type of canal -wall down mastoidectomy.
Note: Healed healthy s cars of neo -tympanic membrane involving <50 % of Pars Tensa due to Type 1
Tympanoplasty (with or without Cortical Mastoidectomy) for Chronic Otitis Media (Mucosal type) and
Myringotomy (for Otitis Media with Effusion) may be acceptable if PTA, Tympanoplast y are normal.
Assessment of operated cases will be done only after a minimum of 12 weeks. A trial in Decompression
Chamber may be carried out, if indicated, for aircrew, ATC/FC, submariners/ divers.
13. Miscellaneous Ear Conditions. The following ear condi tions will entail rejection: -
(a) Otosclerosis.
(b) Meniere’s disease.
(c) Vestibular dysfunction including nystagmus of vestibular origin.
(d) Bell’s palsy following ear infection.
OPHTHALMIC SYSTEM
1. Visual defects and medical ophthalmic conditions are amo ngst the major causes of rejection from flying duties.
Therefore, a thorough and accurate eye examination is of great importance for all candidates, especially those for
flying duties.
2. Personal and Family History and External Examination
(a) Squint and the need for spectacles for other reasons are frequently hereditary and a family history may give
valuable information on the degree of deterioration to be anticipated. Candidates, who are wearing spectacles or
found to have defective vision, should be proper ly assessed. All cases of squint should be made unfit by
recruiting MO and by Specialist. Individuals with manifest squint are not acceptable for commissioning.
However, small horizontal latent squint/ Phoria i.e. Exophoria/ Esophoria may be considered fit by the specialist
along with Grade III BSV. Hyperphoria/ Hypophoria or cyclophoria are to be made unfit.
(b) Ptosis Candidate will be considered Fit post -operative provided there is no recurrence one year after surgery,
visual axis is clear with normal vi sual fields and upper eyelid is 02 mm below the superior limbus. Candidates,
who have not undergone surgery for the condition, would be considered fit if they meet the following criteria: -
(i) Mild ptosis
(ii) Clear visual axis
(iii) Normal visual field
(iv) No sign of aberrant degeneration/ head tilt
(b) Exotropia Unfit
(d) Anisocoria If size difference between the pupils is > 01 mm, candidate will be considered unfit.
(e) Heterochromia irides : Unfit
(f) Sphincter tears : Can be considered fit is size differe nce between pupils is <01 mm, pupillary reflexes are
brisk with no observed pathology in cornea, lens or retina.
(g) Pseudophakia : Unfit
(h) Candidates with uncontrollable blepharitis, particularly with loss of eyelashes, are generally unsuitable and
should b e rejected. Severe cases of blepharitis and chronic conjunctivitis should be assessed as temporarily unfit
until the response to treatment can be assessed.
(j) These cases of Ectropion/ Entropion are to be made unfit. Mild ectropion and entropion which in the opinion
of ophthalmologist will not hamper day to day functioning in any way, may be made fit.
(k) All cases of progressive pterygium to be made unfit by recruiting MO and specialist. Regressive non
vascularisedpterygium likely to be stationary occupying ≤ 1. 5 mm of the peripheral cornea may be made fit by
eye spl after measurement on a slit lamp.
(l) All cases of nystagmus are to be made unfit except for physiologic nystagmus.
(m) Naso -lacrymal occlusion producing epiphora or a mucocele entails rejection, unless surg ery produces relief
lasting for a minimum of six months and the post op syringing is patent.
(n) Uveitis (iritis, cyclitis, and choroiditis) is frequently recurrent, and candidates giving a history of or
exhibiting this condition should be carefully assessed. When there is evidence of permanent lesions such
candidates should be rejected.
(o) Corneal scars, opacities will be cause for rejection unless it does not interfere with vision. Such cases
should be carefully assessed before acceptance, as many conditions are recurrent.
(p) Lenticular opacities : Any lenticular opacity causing visual deterioration, or is in the visual axis or is
present in an area of 07 mm around the pupils, which may cause glare phenomenon, should be considered unfit.
The propensity of the o pacities not to increase in size 0 number should also be a consideration when deciding
fitness. Small stationery lenticular opacities in the periphery like congenital blue dot cataract, not affecting the
visual axis/ visual field may be considered by speci alist (should be less than 10 in number and central area of 04
mm to be clear).
(q) Optic Nerve Drusen Unfit
(i) High Cup - Disc ratio : Candidate will be declared Unfit if any of the fwg conditions exist:
(ii) Inter –Eye asymmetry in cup Disc ratio > 0.2
(iii) Retinal Nerve fibre Layer (RNFL) defect seen by RNFL analysis on OCT
(iv) Visual Field defect detected by visual Field Analyser
(r) Visual disturbances associated with headaches of a migrainous type are not a strictly ocular problem, and
should be ass essed in accordance with para 3 of Central Nervous System Section mentioned above. Presence of
diplopia or detection of nystagmus requires proper examination, as they can be due to physiological reasons.
(s) Night blindness is largely congenital but certai n diseases of the eye exhibit night blindness as an early
symptom and hence, proper investigations are necessary before final assessment. As tests for night blindness are
not routinely performed, a certificate to the effect that the individual does not suf fer from night blindness will be
obtained in every case. Certificate should be as per Appendix ‘A’ to this notification. A proven case of night -
blindness is unfit for service.
(t) Restriction of movements of the eyeball in any direction and undue depress ion/ prominence of the eyeball
requires proper assessment.
(u) Retinal lesions . A small healed chorio -retinal scar in the retinal periphery not affecting the vision and not
associated with any other complications can be made fit by specialist. Similarly a small lattice in periphery with
no other complications can be made fit. Any lesion in the central fundus will be made unfit by the specialist.
(v) Lattice: The following lattice degeneration will render a candidate Unfit.
(i) Single circumferential lat tice extending more than two clock hours in either or both eyes.
(ii) Two circumferential lattices each more than one clock hour in extent in either or both eyes.
(iii) Radial lattices
(iv) Any lattice with atrophic hole/ flap tears (Unlasered)
(v) Lattice degeneration posterior to equator
Candidates with lattice degeneration will be considered fit under the following conditions:
(i) Single circumferential lattice without holes of less than two clock hours in either or both eyes.
(ii) Two circumferential la ttices without holes each being less than one clock hour in extent in
either or both eyes.
(iii) Post laser delimitation single circumferential lattice, without holes/ flap tear, less than two clock
hours extent in either or both eyes.
(iv) Post laser deli mitation two circumferential lattices, without holes /flap tear, each being less than
one clock hour extent in either or both eyes.
(w) Keratoconus: Keratoconus is Unfit.
3. Visual Acuity/ Colour Vision . The visual acuity and colour vision requirements are detailed in Appendix ‘B’ to
this notification. Those who do not meet these requirements are to be rejected.
4. Myopia . If there is a strong family history of Myopia, particularly if it is established that the visual defect is
recent, if physical growth is still expected, or if the fundus appearance is suggestive of progressive myopia, even if the
visual acuity is within the limit prescribed, the candidate should be declared unfit.
5. Refractive Surgeries. Candidates who have undergone Keratorefractive Surgeries (Photo Refractive Keratotomy
(PRK), Laser in -situ Keratomileusis (LASIK), Femto LASIK, SMILE or equivalent procedures) may be considered fit
for commissioning in the Air Force in all branches. Residual refraction after such procedure should not b e more than
+/- 1.0 D Sph or Cyl for branches where correctable refractory errors are permitted. The following criteria must be
satisfied prior to selecting such candidates: -
(i) Individuals with high refractive errors (>6D) prior to Keratorefractive Sur gery are to be excluded.
(ii) Keratorefractive Surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20 years.
(iii) At least 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable Keratorefractive Surgery with no
history or evidence of any complicat ion.
(iv) The axial length of the eye should not be more than 26 mm as measured by IOL master.
(v) The post Keratorefractive Surgery corneal thickness as measured by a corneal pachymeter should not be
less than 450 microns.
6. Radial Keratotomy (RK) surger y for correction of refractive errors is not permitted for any Air Force duties.
Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit.
OCULAR MUSCLE BALANCE
7. Individuals with manifest squint are not accept able for commissioning. The assessment of latent squint or
heterophoria in the case of aircrew will be mainly based on the assessment of the fusion capacity. A strong fusion
sense ensures the maintenance of binocular vision in the face of stress and fatig ue. Hence, it is the main criterion for
acceptability.
(a) Convergence (as assessed on RAF rule)
(i) Objective Convergence. Average is from 6.5 to 8 cm. It is poor at 10 cm and above.
(ii) Subjective Convergence (SC) . This indicates the end point of binocular vision under the stress of
convergence. If the subjective convergence is more than 10 cm beyond the limit of objective
convergence, the fusion capacity is poor. This is specially so when the objective convergence is 10
cm and above.
(b)Accommodation . In the case of myopes, accommodation should be assessed with corrective glasses in position.
The acceptable values for accommodation in various age groups are given in Table 1.
Table 1 - Accommodation Values – Age wise
Age in Yrs 17-20 21-25 26-30 31-35 36-40 41-45
Accommodation (in cm) 10-11 11-12 12.5-13.5 14-16 16-18.5 18.5-27
8. Ocular muscle balance is dynamic and varies with concentration, anxiety, fatigue, hypoxia, drugs and alcohol.
The above tests should be considered together for the final asse ssment. For example, cases just beyond the maximum
limits of the Maddox Rod test, but who show a good binocular response, a good objective convergence with little
difference from subjective convergence, and full and rapid recovery on the cover tests may be accepted. On the other
hand, cases well within Maddox Rod test limits, but who show little or no fusion capacity, incomplete or no recovery
on the cover tests, and poor subjective convergence should be rejected. Standards for assessment of Ocular Muscle
Balance are detailed in Appendix ‘C’ to notification.
9. Any clinical findings in the media (cornea, lens, vitreous) or fundus, which is of pathological nature and likely to
progress will be a cause for rejection. This examination will be done by slit l amp and ophthalmoscopy under
mydriasis.
Appendix ‘A’
[Refers to para 2 (m) Ophthalmology standards]
CERTIFICATE REGARDING NIGHT BLINDNESS
Name with initials___________________________________________________
Batch No. _________________________ Chest N o ________________________
I hereby certify that to the best of my knowledge, there has not been any case of night blindness in our
family, and I do not suffer from it.
Date: (Signature of the candidate)
Countersigned by
(Name of Medical Off icer)
Appendix ‘B’
(para 3 above of
Ophthalmology standards)
VISUAL STANDARDS AT INITIAL ENTRY
Sl
No. Med
Cat Branch Maximum Limits of
Refractive Error Visual Acuity (VA) with limits of
maximum correction Colour
Vision
1 A1G1 F (P) including
WSOs ,
Flying Branch
cadets at AFA Hypermetropia: + 1.5D
Sph
Manifest Myopia: Nil
Astigmatism: +0.75D Cyl
(within +1.5 D Max)
Retinoscopic myopia: Nil 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in other,
correctable to 6/6 only for
Hypermetropia CP-I
Note 1 : Ocular muscle balance for personnel covered in Sl. Nos. 1 and 2 should conform to Appendix C to this
Chapter.
Note 2 : Visual standards of Air Wing Cadets at NDA and Flt Cdts of F (P) at AFA should conform to A1G1 F (P)
standard (S1. No. 1 of Appendix B)
Note 3: The Sph co rrection factors mentioned above will be inclusive of the specified astigmatic correction factor. A
minimum correction factor upto the specified visual acuity standard can be accepted
Appendix ‘C’
(para 8 above of
Ophthalmology standards)
STANDARD OF OCU LAR MUSCLE BALANCE FOR FLYING DUTIES
Sl. No. Test Fit Temporary Unfit Permanently Unfit
1 Maddox Rod
Test at 6 meters Exo-6 Prism D
Eso -6 Prism D
Hyper -1 prism D
Hypo - 1 prism D Exo- Greater than 6 prism D
Eso- Greater than 6 prism D
Hyper - Grea ter than 1 prism D
Hypo - Greater than 1 prism D Uniocular suppression Hyper/
Hypo more than 2 prism D
2 Maddox Rod
Test at 33
cm Exo-16 Prism D
Eso- 6 Prism D
Hyper - 1 Prism
D Hypo - 1
Prism D Exo - Greater than 16 prism D
Eso - Greater than 6 pris m D
Hyper Greater than 1 prism D
Hypo Greater than 1 prism D Uniocular suppression Hyper/
Hypo more than 2 prism D
3 Hand held
Stereoscope All of BSV grades Poor Fusional reserves Absence of SMP, fusion
Stereopsis
4 Convergence Up to 10 cm Up to 15 cm with effort Greater than 15 cm with effort
5 Cover test for
Distance and
Near Latent divergence /
convergence
recovery rapid and
complete Compensated heterophoria/
trophia likely to improve with
treatment / persisting even after
treatment Compensated hete rophoria
HAEMOPOIETIC SYSTEM
1. History of easy fatiguability, general weakness, petechiae/ ecchymosis, bleeding from gums and alimentary tract,
persistent bleeding after minor trauma and menorrhagia in case of females should be carefully elicited. All candi dates
should be examined for clinical evidence of pallor (anaemia), malnutrition, icterus, peripheral lymphadenopathy,
purpura, petechiae/ ecchymoses and hepatosplenomegaly.
2. In the event of laboratory confirmation of anaemia (<13g/dl in males and <11.5g/dl in females), further evaluation
to ascertain type of anaemia and aetiology has to be carried out. This should include a complete haemogram (to
include the PCV MCV, MCH, MCHC, TRBC, TWBC, DLC, Platelet count, reticulocyte count and ESR) and a
peripheral bl ood smear. All the other tests to establish the aetiology will be carried out, as required. Ultrasonography
of abdomen for gallstones, upper GI Endoscopy/ proctoscopy and hemoglobin electrophoresis etc. may be done, as
indicated, and the fitness of the can didate, decided on the merit of each case.
3. Candidates with mild microcytic hypochromic (Iron deficiency anaemia) or dimorphic anaemia (Hb< 10.5g/dl in
females and < 11.5g/dl in males), in the first instance, may be made temporarily unfit for a period of 04 to 06 weeks
followed by review thereafter. These candidates can be accepted, if the complete haemogram and PCV, peripheral
smear results are within the normal range. Candidates with macrocytic/ megaloblasticanaemia will be assessed unfit.
4. All candidates with evidence of hereditary haemolyticanaemias (due to red cell membrane defect or due to red cell
enzyme deficiencies) and haemoglobinopathies (Sickle cell disease, Beta Thalassaemia: Major, Intermedia, Minor,
Trait and Alpha Thalassaemia etc.) are to be considered unfit for service.
5. In the presence of history of haemorrhage into the skin like ecchymosis/ petechiae, epistaxis, bleeding from gums
and alimentary tract, persistent bleeding after minor trauma or lacerations/ tooth extraction or menorrhagia in females
and any family history of haemophilia or other bleeding disorders a full evaluation will be carried out. These cases
will not be acceptable for entry to service. All candidates with clinical evidence of purpura or evidence of
thrombocytopenia are to be considered unfit for service. Cases of Purpura Simplex (simple easy bruising), a benign
disorder seen in otherwise healthy women, may be accepted.
6. Candidates with history of haemophilia, von Willebrand’s disease, on evaluation, are to be declared unf it for service
at entry level.
7. Monocytosis. Absolute monocyte counts greater than 1000/cu mm or more than or equal to 10% of total WBC
counts is to be deemed unfit.
8. Eosinophilia. Absolute eosinophil counts greater than or equal to 500/cu mm is deemed unf it.
9. Haemoglobin more than 16.5g/dL in males and more than 16g/dL in females will be considered as Polycythemia
and deemed Unfit.
DENTAL FITNESS STANDARDS
1. The examiner should enquire whether the candidate has any past history of major dental procedures o r alterations.
Significant past history of ulceration or infection of the tongue, gums or throat should be documented. History
suggestive of premalignant lesions or pathologies that are prone for recurrence should be elicted.
2. Dental Standards . The foll owing dental standards are to be followed and candidates whose dental standard does
not conform to the laid down standards will be rejected: -
(a) Candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points and the following teeth must be present in the upper
jaw i n good functional opposition with the corresponding teeth in the lower jaw: -
(i) Any four of the six anterior
(ii) Any six of the ten posterior
(b) Each incisor, canine 1st and 2nd premolar will have a value of one point provided their corresponding
oppo site teeth are present.
(c) Each 1st and 2nd molar and well developed 3rd molar will have the value of two points, provided in good
opposition to corresponding teeth in the opposing jaw.
(d) In case 3rd molar is not well developed, it will have a value of one point only.
(e) When all the 16 teeth are present in the upper jaw and in good functional opposition to corresponding teeth
in the lower jaw, the total value will be 20 or 22 points according to whether the 3rd molars are well developed
or not.
(f) All removable dental prosthesis will be removed during oral examination and not be awarded any dental
points except in the case of ex -serviceman applying for re -enrolment, who will be awarded dental points for
well fitting removable prostheses.
3. Extra o ral examination
(a) Gross facial examination . Presence of any gross asymmetry or soft/ hard tissue defects/ scars or if any
incipient pathological condition of the jaw is suspected, it will be a cause of rejection.
(b) Functional examination
(i) Temporomandibu lar joint (TMJ). TMJs will be bilaterally palpated for tenderness and/or clicking.
Candidates with symptomatic clicking and/or tenderness or dislocation of the TML on wide opening
will be rejected.
(ii) Mouth Opening. A mouth opening of less than 30 mm measur ed at the incisal edges will be reason
for rejection.
4. Guidelines for awarding dental points in special situations
(a) Dental caries. Teeth with caries that have not been restored or teeth associated broken down crowns, pulp
exposure, residual root stumps, teeth with abscesses and/or sinuses will not be counted for award of dental
points.
(b) Restorations. Teeth having restorations that appear to be improper/broken/discolored will not be awarded
dental points. Teeth restored by use of inappropriate materials, t emporary or fractured restorations with doubtful
marginal integrity or peri -apical pathology will not be awarded dental points.
(c) Loose teeth . Loose/mobile teeth with clinically demonstrable mobility will not be awarded dental points.
Periodontally splinted teeth will not be counted for award of dental points.
(d) Retained deciduous teeth. Retained deciduous teeth will not be awarded dental points.
(e) Morphological defects. Teeth with structural defects which compromise efficient mastication will not be
awarded d ental points.
(f) Periodontium
(i) The condition of the gums, of the teeth included for counting dental points, should be healthy, i.e. pink in
colour, firm in consistency and firm in consistency and firmly resting against the necks of the teeth. Visible
calculus should not be present.
(ii) Individual teeth with swollen, red or infected gums or those with visible calculus will not be awarded
dental points.
(iii) Candidates with generalized calculus, extensive swollen and red gums, with or without exudates, shall be
rejected.
(g) Malocclusion. Candidates with malocclusion affecting masticatory efficiency and phonetics shall not be
recruited. Teeth in open bite will not be awarded dental points as they are not considered to be in functional
apposition. Candidates havin g an open bite, reverse overjet or any visible malocclusion will be rejected.
However, if in the opinion of the dental officer, the malocclusion of teeth is not hampering efficient mastication,
phonetics, maintenance of oral hygiene or general nutrition o r performance of duties efficiently, then candidates
will be declared FIT. The following criteria have to be considered in assessing malocclusion:
(i) Edge to edge bite. Edge to edge bite will be considered as functional apposition.
(ii) Anterior Open Bite. Anteri or open bite is to be taken as lack of functional opposition of involved teeth.
(iii) Cross bite. Teeth in cross bite may still be in functional occlusion and may be awarded points, if so.
(iv) Traumatic bite. Anterior teeth involved in a deep impinging bite which is causing traumatic indentations
on the palate will not be counted for award of points.
(h) Hard and Soft tissues. Soft tissues of cheek, lips, palate, tongue and sublingual region and maxilla/
mandibular bony apparatus must be examined for any swelling, di scoloration, ulcers, scars, white patches, sub
mucous fibrosis etc. All potentially malignant lesions will be cause for rejection. Clinical diagnosis for sub
mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of mouth opening will be a cause of rejection. Bony le sion(s) will be
assessed for their pathological/physiological nature and commented upon accordingly. Any hard or soft tissue
lesion will be a cause of rejection.
(j) Orthotic appliances. Fixed orthodontics lingual retainers will not be considered as period ontal splints and
teeth included in these retainers will be awarded points for dental fitness. Candidates wearing fixed or removable
orthodontic appliances will be declared UNFIT.
(k) Dental implants. When an implant supported crown replaces a single miss ing tooth, the prosthesis may be
awarded dental points as for natural teeth provided the prosthesis is in functional apposition and the integrity of
the implant is confirmed.
(l) Fixed Partial Dentures (FPD) / Implant supported FPDs. FPDs will be assessed clinically and
radiologically for firmness, functional apposition to opposing teeth and periodontal health of the abutments. If all
parameters are found satisfactory, dental points will be awarded as follows:
(i) Tooth supported FPDs
(aa) Prosthesis, 3 u nits. Dental points will be awarded for the abutments and the pontic.
(ab) Prosthesis, more than 3 units. Dental points will be awarded only to the abutments. No points will be
awarded for the pontics.
(ac) Cantilever FDPs. Dental points will be awarded only to the abutments.
(ii) Implant supported FPDs
(aa) Prosthesis, 3 units. Dental points will be awarded for the natural teeth, implant and the pontic.
(ab) Prosthesis, more than 3 units. Dental points will be awarded only to the natural teeth. N o points are
to be awarded for pontics and implant(s).
(ac) Two unit cantilever FPDs. Dental points will be awarded only to the implants.
(m) A maximum of 02 implants will be permitted in a candidate. No points will be given for implants/implant
suppor ted prosthesis in excess of the 02 permissible implants. In the case of a candidate having 03 more
implants/implant supported prosthesis, which 02 are to be awarded marks will be based on the clinical judgment
of the dental officer.
5. The following will be criteria for declaring a candidate UNFIT
(a) Oral hygiene. Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal pockets and/or
bleeding from gums will render candidate UNFIT.
(b) Candidates reporting post maxillo -facial surgery/ maxillofa cialtrauma. Candidates who undergo
cosmetic or post -traumatic maxillofacial surgery/ trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24 weeks from the date of
surgery/ injury whichever is later. After this period, if there is no residual deformity or functional deficit, they
will be assessed as per the laid down criteria.
(c) Candidate with dental arches affected by advanced stage of generalized active lesions of pyorrhoea, acute
ulcerative gingivitis, and gross abnormality of the teeth or jaws or with numerous caries or sep tic teeth will be
rejected.
1. Please visit www.joinindianarmy.nic.in for Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination of
Officers’ Entry into Army as app licable.
2. Please visit www.joinindiannavy.gov.in for Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination of
Officers’ Entry into Navy as applicable.
3. Please visit www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in for Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination of
Officers’ Entry into Air Force as applicable.
Note: Permane nt body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e from inside of elbow to the wrist and on
the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand. Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body are not
acceptable and candidates will be ba rred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on the face or body as per
their existing custom and traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis. Commandant Selection Centre will be
competent authority for clearing such cases.
APPENDIX -(III)
(Brief particulars of service etc.)
Pay scale of Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy
Pay
Rank Level (Pay in Rs.)
Lieutenant Level 10 56,100 -1,77,500
Captain Level 10 B 61,300 - 1,93,900
Major Level 11 69,400 - 2,07,200
Lieutenant Colonel Level 12A 1,21,200 - 2,12,400
Colonel Level 13 1,30,600 -2,15,900
Brigadier Level 13A 1,39,600 -2,17,600
Major General Level 14 1,44,200 -2,18,200
Lieutenant General HAG Scale Level 15 1, 82, 200 -2,24,100
HAG+ Scale Level 16 2,05,400 - 2,24,400
VCOAS/Army Cdr/ Lieutenant General (NFSG) Level 17 2,25,000/ -(fixed)
COAS Level 18 2,50,000/ -(fixed)
MSP to the officer is as follows
Military Service Pay(MSP) to the officers from the rank of
Lieutenant to Brigadier Rs 15,500 p.m. fixed
Fixed Stipend for cadet Training
Stipend to Gentlemen or Women Cadets during the entire duration of
training in Service academies i.e. during training period at IMA and OTA. Rs 56,100/ -p.m.* (Starting pay in Level
10)
* On successful commissioning, the pa y in the Pay matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in first Cell of
Level 10 and the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service and arrears on account of admissible
allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall b e paid to cadets.
QUALIFICATION PAY AND GRANT
(i) Qualification Grant
Abolished as a separate allowance. Eligible employees to be governed by newly proposed Higher
Qualification incentive (HQI). Order for HQI is yet to be issued by MoD.
(ii) Flying allowance
The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in the Army Aviation Corps are entitled to flying allowance as under: -
Lieutenant and above Level 10 and above Rs 25,000/ - p.m. fixed (R1H1 of Risk and
Hardship Matrix)
(iii) Other Allowances
(a) Dearness Allow ance Admissible at the same rates and under the same conditions as are
applicable to the civilian personnel from time to time
(b) Kit maintenance Allowance Subsumed into the newly proposed Dress Allowance i.e.
Rs 20,000/ - per year
Depending upon rank and area of posting, officer posted to Field Areas will be eligible for the following
Field Area allowance and/or Risk and Hardship Allowances payable as per MoD letter No 8(3)/2017/D(Pay/Services)
dated 21 Apr 2022: -
Rank Level HAFA Fd Area
Allce Mod Fd
Area Allce
Lieutenant and
above Level 10 and above 16900
(R1H2) 10500
(R2H2) 6300
(60% R2H2)
(iv) High Altitude Allowance
Rank Level CAT -I
(PM) CAT -II
(PM) CAT -III
(PM)
Lieutenant and above Level 10 and above 3,400
(R3H2) 5,300
(R3H1) 25,000
(R1H1)
(v) Siachen Allowance
Siachen Allowance will be Rs. 42,500/ - per month.
(vi) Uniform allowance
Subsumed into the newly proposed Dress Allowance i.e. Rs. 20,000/ - per year.
(vii) Free Ration in kind.
In Peace and Field areas.
(viii) Transport Allce (TPTA).
Pay Level Higher TPTA Cities
(Rs. Per month) Other Places
(Rs. Per month)
10 and above Rs. 7200+DA thereon Rs. 3600+DA thereon
Note :-
(a) Higher Tpt Cities (UA). Hyderabad, Patna, Delhi, Ahmadabad, Surat, Bengaluru, Kochi, Kozhikode,
Indore, Greater Mumbai, Nagpur, Pune, Jaipur, Chennai, Coimbatore, Ghaziabad, Kanpur, Lucknow,
Kolkata.
(b) The allowance shall not be admissible to those service personnel who have been provided with the
facility of Government transport.
(c) Officers in Pay Level 14 and above, who are entitled to use official car, will have the option to avail
official car facility or to draw the TPTA at the rate of Rs. 15,750+DA per month.
(d) The allowance will not be admissible for the calendar month(s) wholly covered by leave.
(e) Physically disabled service personnel will continue to be paid at double rate, subject to a minimum of
Rs. 2250 + DA per month.
(ix) Children Education Allowance . Rs. 2250/ - per month per child for two eldest surviving only. CEA is
admissible from Nursery to 12th Classes.
(i) Reimbursement should be done just once a year, after completion of the financial year (which for most
schools coincides with the Academic year).
(ii) Certificate from the head of institution where the ward of government employee studies should be
sufficient for this purpose. The certificate should confirm that the child studied in the school during the
previous academic year.
In the case of allowances specific to Defence Forces, the rates of these allowances would be enhanced by
25% autom atically each time the Dearness Allowance payable on the revised pay band goes up by 50% (GoI
letter No. A -27012/02/2017 -Estt(AL) dated 16 August 2017).
(iii) Please note that pay and allowances and rules/provisions thereof are subject to revision from tim e to time
(A) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY, DEHRADUN:
1. Before the candidate joins the Indian Military Academy.
(a) He will be required to sign a certificate to the effect that he fully understands that he or his legal heirs shall
not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government in respect of any injury which
he may sustain. In the course of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death results in the
course of or as a result of a sur gical operation performed upon or anaesthesia administrated to him for the
treatment of any injury received as aforesaid or otherwise.
(b) His parent or guardian will be required to sign a bond to the effect that if for any reason considered within
his control , the candidate wishes to withdraw before the completion of the course or fails to accept a
commission if offered; he will be liable to refund the whole or such portion of the cost of tuition, food, clothing
and pay & allowances, received as may be decided upon by Government.
2. Candidates finally selected will undergo a course of training for about 18 months. Candidates will be enrolled
under the Army Act as Gentlemen cadets. Gentlemen cadets will be dealt with the ordinary disciplinary purposes
under the rules and regulations of the Indian Military Academy, Dehradun.
3. While, the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will
be borne by Government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expense s themselves.
The minimum expenses at the Indian Military Academy are not likely to exceed Rs. 200.00 per month. If a
cadet’s parent or guardian is unable to meet wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance may be
granted by the Governmen t. Gentlemen Women Cadets undergoing training at Indian Military Academy,
Officers' Training Academy and corresponding training establishments in Navy and Air Force, in whose cases the
income of parents/guardians does not exceed Rs. 1,500/ - (under revision ) per month are eligible for financial
assistance. In case of parents/guardians whose income exceeds Rs. 1,500/ - (under revision) per month but does
not exceed Rs. 2,000/ - (under revision) per month, the same financial assistance will be given in respect o f all the
sons/wards if there are more than one son/ward simultaneously undergoing training in one or more than one of the
above institutions irrespective of the fact whether the institutions are under the same service or not. The
immovable property and ot her assets and income from all sources are also taken into account for determining the
eligibility for financial assistance.
The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having any financial assistance, should, immediately after his
son/ward has been fin ally selected for training at the Indian Military Academy, submit an application through the
District Magistrate of his District who will with his recommendation forward the application to the Commandant,
Indian Military Academy, Dehradun.
4. Candidate finally selected for training at the Indian Military Academy will be required to deposit the
following amount with the Commandant on arrival :
(a) Pocket allowance for five months Rs. 1,000.00/ -
@ Rs. 200.00 per month.
(b) For item of clothi ng and equipment Rs. 2,750.00/ -
Total Rs. 3,750.00/ -
Out of the amount mentioned above the following is refundable to the cadets in the event of financial assistance
being sanctioned to them.
Pocket allowance of five months Rs. 1,000.00/ -
@ Rs . 200.00 per month.
5. The following Scholarships are tenable at the Indian Military Academy :
(i) PARSHURAM BHAU PATWARDAN SCHOLARSHIP — This scholarship is awarded to cadets from
MAHARASHTRA AND KARNATAKA. The value of one scholarship is upto a maximum of Rs. 500.00 per
annum for the duration of a cadet’s stay at the Indian Military Academy subject to the cadet’s making
satisfactory progress. The cadets who are granted this scholarship will not be entitled to any other financial
assistance from the Governm ent.
(ii) COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP — This scholarship is of the value of Rs.
360.00 per annum and is awarded to an eligible Maratha cadet who should be a son of ex -serviceman. The
Scholarship is in addition to any financial assistance from the Government.
6. An outfit allowance at the rate and under the general conditions applicable at the time for each cadet belonging
to the Indian Military Academy will be placed at disposal of the Commandant of the Academy. The unexpended
portion of the al lowance will be : —
(a) handed over to the cadet on his being granted a commission or
(b) if he is not granted a commission refunded to the State.
On being granted a commission article of clothing and necessaries purchased from the allowance shall becom e the
personal property of the cadet. Such articles will, however be withdrawn from a cadet who resigns while under
training or who is removed or withdrawn prior to commissioning. The article withdrawn will be disposed of to the
best advantage of the State .
7. No candidate will normally be permitted to resign whilst under training. However, Gentlemen Cadet resigning after
the commencement of training may be allowed to proceed home pending acceptance of their resignation by HQ
ARTRAC. Cost of training, messi ng and allied services will be recovered from them before their departure. They and
their parents/guardians will be required to execute a bond to this effect before the candidates are allowed to join Indian
Military Academy. A Gentlemen Cadet who is not co nsidered suitable to complete the full course of training may with
permission of the Government, be discharged after paying the cost of Training laid down by the Govt. of India.
Service candidates under these circumstances will be reverted back to their pa rent Unit.
8. Commission will be granted only on successful completion of training. The date of commission will be that
following the date of successful completion of training. Commission will be permanent.
9. Pay and allowances, pensions, leave and other conditions of service after the grant of commission will be identified
with those applicable from time to time to regular officers of the army.
10. Training: At the Indian Military Academy Army Cadets, known as Gentlemen Cadets, are given strenuous
Militar y training for a period of 18 months aimed at turning out, officers capable of leading infantry subunits. On
successful completion of training Gentlemen Cadets are granted Permanent Commission in the rank of Lt. subject to
being medically fit, in S.H.A.P.E .
11. Army Group Insurance Fund (AGIF) . The Gentlemen/Women Cadets when in receipt of stipend are insured
for ₹ One Cr as applicable to officers of the regular Army. Subscription at the rate of ₹ 10,000 will have to be paid in
advance on monthly basis by the Gentlemen/Women Cadets to become members under the AGI Scheme as applicable
to Regular Army Officers. For those who are invalidated out by IMB on account of disability and not entitled to any
pension will be provided ₹ 25 lakhs for 100 percent disabil ity. This will be proportionately reduced to ₹ 5 lakhs for 20
percent disability. However, for less than 20 percent disability, an ex -gratia grant of ₹ 50,000/ - only will be paid.
Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and due to diseases of pre -enrolment origin will not qualify for disability
benefit and Ex -Gratia Grant. In addition, Gentlemen/Women Cadets withdrawn on disciplinary grounds, expelled as
an undesirable or leaving the Academy voluntarily will not be eligible for disability benefits and Ex-Gratia.
12. The following monetary benefits are available to the Cadets (Direct)/NoKs in the event of invalidment on medical
grounds/death of a Cadet (Direct) due to causes attributable to or aggravated by military training:
(a) In Case Of Disableme nt
(i) Monthly Ex -gratia amount of Rs. 9,000/ - per month.
(ii) Ex-gratia disability award @ Rs. 16200/ - per month shall be payable in addition for 100% of
disability during period of disablement subject to prorata reduction in case the degree of disablemen t is
less than 100%. No disability award shall be payable in cases where the degree of disablement is less
than 20%.
(iii) Constant Attendant Allowance (CAA) @ Rs 6750/ - per month for 100% disabled on the
recommendation of Invaliding Medical Board (IMB).
(b) IN CASE OF DEATH
(i) Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 12.5 lakhs to the NoK.
(ii) Ex -gratia amount of Rs. 9000/ - per month to the NoK.
(c) The Ex -gratia awards to Cadets (Direct) / NoK, shall be sanctioned purely on ex -gratia basis and the same
shall not be treated as pen sion for any purpose. However, dearness relief at applicable rates shall be granted on
monthly ex -gratia as well as ex -gratia disability award. (Authority: GOI/MOD letter
No.17(01)/2017(01)D(Pension/ Policy) dated 04 Sep 2017 as amended vide para 11 & 12 o f GOI/MOD letter
No.17(02)/2016 D(Pen/Pol) dated 04 Sep 2017.
13. Terms and Conditions of Service
(i) POSTING
Army officers are liable to serve anywhere in India and abroad.
(ii) PROMOTION
Substantive promotions
The following are the service limits for the grant of the substantive promotion to higher ranks.
By time scale :
Lt. On completion of training
Capt. 2 years of reckonable commissioned service
Major 6 years of reckonable commissioned service
Lt. Col. 13 years of reckonable commissioned service
Col (T S) 26 years of reckonable commissioned service
“The Qualifying service for consideration for promotion by Selection is as under”
Col. 15 years of reckonable commissioned service
Brigadier 23 years of reckonable commissioned service
Major Gen. 25 years of r eckonable commissioned service
Lt. Gen. 28 years of reckonable commissioned service
General No restrictions
(B) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY, EZHIMALA, KERALA
(i) Candidates selected for training at the Indian Naval Academy will be appo inted as Cadets under the Graduate
Cadet Special Entry Scheme (GSES) Course. The Selection of the cadets is based on the candidate qualifying in the
Combined Defence Service Examination (CDSE), followed by SSB interview and Medical Examination. Meritoriou s
candidates who are medically fit are appointed to the 32 vacancies of Executive Branch (General Service/ Hydro)
(including 06 for Naval NCC ‘C’ certificate holding candidates under the NCC Special Entry Scheme).
(ii) Selection of Cadets from the National Cadet Corps. The eligibility, age -limits, educational qualifications for
candidates applying under the NCC Special Entry Scheme are the same as the GSES candidates except for the
following: -
a) A NCC Cadet must have served for not less than three academi c years in the Senior Division, Naval Wing of
the National Cadet Corps, and must be in possession of Certificate"C" (Naval). Those who have appeared or
intend to appear for certificate "C" examination are also eligible to apply but their final selection s hall depend on
producing the Certificate before the commencement of the course.
b) The NCC Cadet must be in possession of a certificate of good conduct and character from his University or
Principal of his College.
c) A NCC Cadet shall not be eligible t o apply after twelve months of leaving the Senior Division, Naval Wing
of the National Cadet Corps.
d) In order to apply, a cadet must submit his application to his Officer Commanding, N.C.C Unit, Naval Wing,
who shall forward it through the Circle Commander concerned to the N.C.C. Directorate, Ministry of Defence,
New Delhi. The N.C.C. Directorate will forward the applications to the Chief of the Naval Staff. The
applications shall be submitted on the prescribed form. These forms will be availab le at all N.C.C. Units.
e) Candidates who are considered prima facie suitable shall be required to appear before a Service Selection
Board for interview and other tests.
f) Candidates to be finally selected should at least secure the minimum qualifying mar ks at the Services Selection
Board. Subject to this condition and to their being declared medically fit, successful candidates shall be placed
in the order of merit based on the total marks secured in the written examination and the Service Selection Boar d
interview. The final selection shall be made in the order of merit up to the number of vacancies available.
(iii) Candidates, finally selected for training at the Academy will be appointed as cadets in the Executive Branch of the
Navy. A sum of Rs. 35,0 00/- should be brought by them and deposited in the bank account, which they would be
opening at the State Bank of India, Ezhimala branch, on arrival. Since it is a large amount, it is advised that they carry
a demand draft payable to self. The deposit mon ey would be used to meet the following expenditures: —
(a) Pocket/Personal expenses Rs. 5,000/ -
@ Rs. 1,000/ - per month
(b) Expenses on Laundry, Civilian - Rs. 4,250/ -
bearer, Cinema, hair cutting and @ Rs. 850/ - per month
other sundry servi ces
(c) Expenses on stitching/purchase of Rs.20,000/ -
Academy Blazer, Academy tie, Aca -
demy Mufti, Academy Sportswear,
Jogging shoes, Jungle boots, Swim -
ming Trunk/suits and Satchels.
(d) Travelling expenses for proceeding Rs. 2,000/ -
to next dut y station/home station
on leave on completion of Naval
Orientation Course on return
Journey at the end of the term.
(e) Insurance: The GSES cadets would have to pay Rs. 2303/ - one time non -refundable contribution for an
Insurance cover of Rs. 20,00,000/ - (Rupees twenty lakh only) for a period of six months. Their disability cover and
contribution if relegated would be at par with Non -GSES cadets (NGIF letter No. BA/GIS/215 dated 06 Nov 018).
(iv) Training: Selected candidates may be appointed as cadets o n reporting at the Indian Naval Academy.
The candidates shall remain under probation till completion of initial training which is as follows: -
(a) Naval Orientation Course at 44 weeks
INA, Ezhimala
(b) Officers Sea Training at Training Ship 06 month s
(c) Sub-Lieutenant Afloat training 06 months
(d) Sub-Lieutenant (Technical course) 33 weeks
A float attachment for award of
(e) Full Naval watch -keeping Certificate 06-09 months
(v) Commissioning & Other Benefits The cadets shall be commissioned in the rank of Sub -Lieutenant after successful
completion of approximately 18 months of training. The careers prospects, leave benefits, leave and travel
concession, pensionary/retirements benefits and all such perks and privileges provide d to officers in the Navy is
similar to those being provided by the two services.
(vi) The cost of training including accommodation and allied services, books, uniform, messing and medical treatment
of the cadets of the Indian Naval Academy will be borne b y the Government. Parents or guardians of cadets will,
however, be required to meet their pocket and other private expenses while they are cadets. When a cadet’s parent or
guardian has an income less than Rs. 1500 per mensem and is unable to meet wholly or partly the pocket expenses of
the cadet financial assistance upto Rs.140 per mensem may be granted by the Government. A candidate desirous of
securing financial assistance may immediately after his selection, submit an application through the District
Magistrate of his District, who will with his recommendations, forward the application to the Principal Director of
Manpower Planning & Recruitment, Naval Headquarters, New Delhi -110011.
Note: Further information, if desired, may be obtained from the Director ate of Manpower, Planning & Recruitment,
Naval Headquarters, New Delhi -110011.
(C) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY
1. There are three modes of entry in F(P) Course viz. CDSE/NCC Special Entry/AFCAT. Candidates who apply for
Air Force through more than one source will be tested/interviewed at Air Force Selection Boards as per type of entry.
Common candidate who fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) cannot be tested for flying branch in IAF.
2. Detailing for Training —Candidates recomme nded by the AFSBs and found medically fit by appropriate medical
establishment are detailed for training strictly on the basis of merit and availability of vacancies. Separate merit list are
prepared for Direct Entry candidates through UPSC and for NCC can didates. The merit list for Direct Entry Flying
(Pilot) candidates is based on the combined marks secured by the candidates in the tests conducted by the UPSC and
at the Air Force Selection Boards. The merit list for NCC candidates is prepared on the basis of marks secured by
them at AFSBs.
3. Training —The approximate duration of training for Flying Branch (Pilots) at the Air Force Academy will be 74
weeks.
Insurance cover during Flying Training — (Rates are under revision).
Air Force Group Insurance Society would pay Rs. 1,00,000/ - for a monthly contribution of Rs. 800/ - pm as ex -
gratia award to the next -of-kin of a flight cadet drawn from Civil life and undergoing flying training in an unfortunate
eventuality. In case, flight cadet undergoing flying trainin g is medically invalidated boarded out, he would be paid Rs.
20,000/ - as ex -gratia award for 100% disability and this reduces proportionately upto 20%.
Flight Cadets shall receive a fixed stipend of Rs. 56,100/ - per month (starting pay in Level 10) for the period of
training. "On successful completion of training the stipend admitted will be converted as pay for all purposes.
However, the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service."
Once flight cadets are granted pay and allowances by g overnment, the death cover would be Rs. 50,000/ - and the
disability cover would be Rs. 25,000/ - for 100% disability. This cover would be provided by AFGIS on payment of
monthly non -refundable contribution of Rs. 76/ - by each flight cadet undergoing flying training for which membership
would be compulsory.
Conditions governing Financial Assistance:
(i) While the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be
borne by Government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expenses themselves. The minimum expenses
at the Air Force Academy are not likely to exceed Rs. 14,000/ - (under revision) per mensem. If a cadet’s parent or
guardian is unable to meet wholly/partly even this expenditure, financial assi stance may be granted by the
Government. No cadet whose parent or guardian has an income of Rs. 750/ - or above per month would be eligible for
the grant of the financial assistance. The immovable property and other assets and income from all sources are al so
taken into account for determining the eligibility for financial assistance. The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous
of having any financial assistance, should immediately, after his son/ward has been finally selected for training at the
Air Force A cademy, submit an application through the District Magistrate of his district who will, with his
recommendations, forward the application to the Commandant, Pre Flying Training Courses, Begumpet.
(ii) Candidates finally selected for training at the Air For ce Academy will be required to deposit the following amount
(under revision) with the Commandant on arrival: —
(a) Pocket allowance for six months Rs.840/ -
@ Rs. 140/ - per month
(b) For item of clothing and equipment Rs.1,500/ -
Total Rs. 2,340/ -
Out of the amount mentioned above the following amount is refundable to the cadets in the event of financial
assistance being sanctioned.
Pocket allowance for the six months
@ Rs. 140/ - per month — Rs. 840/ -
4. Career Prospects :
After succe ssful completion of training, the candidates pass out in the rank of Flying Officer and will be entitled to
the pay and allowances of the rank. Time scale promotions to the rank of Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing
Commander and Group Captain are gr anted on completion of 2 years, 6 years, 13 years and 26 years of successful
service respectively. Grant of Group Captain (select) and higher ranks is only by selections. Promising officers have a
fair chance of getting higher promotions to air ranks —Air C ommodore, Air Vice Marshal and Air Marshal.
5. Leave and Leave Travel Concession:
Annual Leave —60 days a year.
Casual Leave —20 days a year.
Officers are authorised encashment of Annual Leave upto 10 days alongwith LTC to the extent of a total 60 days in
a career span to cover incidental expenses on travel.
Officers when proceeding on annual/casual leave, irrespective of its duration, is entitled for free conveyance from
place of duty (unit) to home town and back once in the second year of his service for th e first time and thereafter every
alternate year to any place in India in lieu of home town or selected place of residence without any distance restriction.
In addition officers of Flying branch employed on regular Flying Duties in vacancies in authorised establishment
are allowed, while proceeding on leave once every year on warrant a free rail journey in the appropriate class upto a
total distance of 1600 kms. for the forward and return journeys both inclusive.
Officers when travelling on leave at their o wn expenses are entitled to travel by entitled class or lower class on
payment of 60 per cent of the fare for self, wife and children from unit to any place within India on 6 one -way journey
Form ‘D’ in a calender year. Two of these Form ‘D’ may be availed of for the entire family. In addition to wife and
children family includes parents, sisters and minor brothers residing with and wholly dependent upon the officers.
6. Other Privileges:
The officers and their families are entitled to free medical aid, acc ommodation on concessional rent, group
insurance scheme, group housing scheme, family assistance scheme, canteen facilities etc.
(D) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE OFFICERS TRAINING ACADEMY, CHENNAI
1. Before the candidate join the Officers Training Academy Ch ennai.
(a) He/she will be required to sign a certificate to the effect that he/she fully understands that he/she or his/her legal
heirs shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government in respect of any injury
which he/sh e may sustain in the course of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death results in
the course of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon or anaesthesia administered to him/her for the
treatment of any injury received as aforesaid or otherwise.
(b) His/her parent or guardian will be required to sign a bond to the effect that if for any reason considered within
his/her control, the candidate wishes to withdraw before the completion of the course or fails to accept a
comm ission if offered or marries while under training at the Officers’ Training Academy, he/she will be liable to
refund the whole or such portion of the cost of tuition, food, clothing and pay & allowances, received as may be
decided upon by Government.
2. Candidates finally selected will undergo a course of training at the Officers’ Training Academy, for an approximate
period of 49 weeks. Candidates will be enrolled as Gentlemen/Women Cadets. Gentlemen/Women Cadets will be
dealt with the ordinary disciplinary purposes under the rules and regulations of the Officers’ Training Academy.
3. While, the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be
borne by the government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expenses themselves.
The minimum expenses during the pre commission training are not likely to exceed Rs. 200/ - per month but if the
cadets pursue, any hobbies such as photography, hiking etc. they may require additional money. In case however, the
cadet is unable to meet wholly or partly even the minimum expenditure, financial assistance at rates which are subject
to change from time to time, may be given provided the cadet and his/her parent/guardian, have an income below Rs.
1500 per month. A can didate desirous of having financial assistance should immediately after being finally selected
for training submit an application on the prescribed form through the District Magistrate of his/her district who will
forward the application to the Commandant, Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai alongwith his/her Verification
report.
4. Candidates finally selected for training, at the Officers’ Training Academy, will be required to deposit the following
amount with the Commandant on arrival :
(a) Pocket allowan ce for three month Rs. 3,000/ -
@ Rs. 1,000 per month
(b) For items of clothing and Rs. 5,000/ -
equipment
(c) Group Insurance Coverage Rs. 10,000/ -
for 02 months ( AGIF )
Total Rs. 18,000/ -
Out of the amount mentioned above th e amount mentioned in (b) above is refundable to the Cadets in the event of
financial assistance being sanctioned to them.
5. Outfit allowance will be admissible under order as may be issued from time to time. On being granted a
commission, articles of clo thing and necessaries purchased from this allowance shall become the personal property of
the cadet. Such articles, will however be withdrawn from a cadet who resigns while under training or who is removed
or withdrawn prior to commissioning. The article w ithdrawn will be disposed of to the best advantage of the State.
6. No candidate will normally be permitted to resign whilst under training. However, Gentlemen/Women Cadets
resigning after the commencement of training may be allowed to proceed home pending acceptance of their
resignation by HQ ARTRAC. Cost of training, messing and allied services will be recovered from them before their
departure. They and their parents/guardians will be required to execute a bond to this effect before the candidates are
allowed to join Officers’ Training Academy.
7. On joining OTA, cadets will be allowed to apply and proceed for civil central job interview/SSB in the first term of
the training only. However, no cost of training including messing charges will be recovered fr om these Gentlemen
Cadets, who may resign from the Officers Training Academy, Chennai to undergo pre -commission training at the
Indian Military Academy, Dehradun or corresponding cadet training establishment in Navy and Air Force, if so
selected.
8. A Gent leman/ Women Cadets who is not considered suitable to complete the full course of training may, with
permission of Government, be discharged after paying cost of training laid down by the Government of India. An
Army candidate under these circumstances wil l be reverted to his Regiment or Corps.
9. Training :
Selected candidates will be enrolled as Gentleman/Women Cadets and will undergo a course of training at the
Officers’ Academy for an approximate period of 49 Weeks. On successful completion of training Gentleman/Women
Cadets are granted Short Service Commission in the rank of Lt. from the date of successful completion of training.
University of Madras will award "Post Graduate Diploma in Defence Management and Strategic Studies" to all cadets
who succes sfully complete Pre -commissioning training at Officers Training Academy, Chennai. Candidates
withdrawn from Officers' Training Academy on disciplinary grounds are not eligible to apply.
10. Terms and conditions of Services:
(a) Period of probation:
An offi cer will be on probation for a period of 6 months from the date he/she receives his/her commission. If
he/she is reported on within the probationary period as unsuitable to retain his/her commission, he/she may be
terminated any time whether before or afte r the expiry of the probationary period.
(b) Liability of Service:
Personnel granted Short Service Commission is liable to serve anywhere in India and abroad on selected
appointments as decided by IHQ MOD (Army) from time to time.
(c) Tenure of Appointmen t:
Short Service Commission will be granted to Male and Female in the regular Army for 14 years i.e. for an initial
period of 10 years extendable by a further period of 04 years. Male and Female officers who are willing to continue to
serve in the Army aft er the expiry of period of ten years Short Service Commission may, if eligible and suitable in all
respects, be considered for the grant of Permanent Commission in the 10thyear of their Short Service Commission in
accordance with the relevant policies as i ssued from time to time.
Those SSC officers (Male and Female) who are not selected for grant of PC but are otherwise considered fit and
suitable, will be given options to continue as SSCOs for a total period of 14 years (including the initial tenure of 10
years) on expiry of which they will be released from the Army.
(d) Special Provision for Release for SSC on completion of 5th Year of Service:
SSC (Non -Tech) Male & Female Officers, other than those who undergone or are undergoing Degree Engineering
Course or any other specialized course of such nature, who are desirous of leaving the service after completion of five
years service may, during the fifth year of service, apply to the Army HQs. for release. Army HQ will consider the
applications of such officers on merits and the decision of the Army HQ will be final and irrevocable. On approval of
such officers will be released from service on completion of 5th year of service. Those SSC (Non -Tech) Male &
Female Officers who have undergone or are undergo ing Degree Engineering Course or any other specialised course of
such nature, will not be released before expiry of full tenure of 14 years unless the cost of training of such specialized
course as prescribed is recovered from them. The Combat Aviation Cou rse which is mandatory for Aviators is
specialized course for Short Service Commissioned Officers. They will be required to execute a bond to this effect on
being nominated for undertaking Degree Engineering Course/Special Course of such nature. In additi on to all
instructions in force for various courses of instructions, the following restrictions would apply to all SSC Officers for
all courses except mandatory course: -
(i) All SSC Officers (Male & Women), less officers of Army Aviation Corps, will be requi red to give an
undertaking before undergoing a ‘Specialized/other category’ course that they would be willing to serve for
minimum five years beyond termination of the course.
(ii) All SSCOs (Male & Women) of Army Aviation Corps will give an undertaking before commencement of the
course that they will: -
(aa) Be willing to serve for minimum 12 years beyond termination of the course,
(ab) Be obliged to opt for PRC as well as seek extension when giving undertaking for specialized course.
(e) Special Provisions dur ing Extended Tenure:
During extended tenure, they will be permitted to seek release from the Army on the following grounds: —
(i) Taking up civil Job.
(ii) Pursuing higher education.
(iii) Starting own business/joining family business.
(f) Substant ive Promotion :
SSCOs male and female granted Short Service Commission under these rules will be eligible for substantive
promotion as under: —
(i) To the rank on completion of 2 years
of Capt. reckonable commissioned service
(ii) To the rank of on completion of 6 years
Major reckonable commissioned service.
(iii) To the rank of on completion of 13 years
Lt. Col. reckonable commissioned service.
(g) Mandatory Conditions:
Mandatory conditions for grant of above substantive ra nks laid down for Permanent Commissioned officers as well as
the eligibility, time limit and penalties for promotions exam Part B and D as applicable to permanent commission
officers also be similarly applicable to SSCOs male and female.
h) Adjustment of S eniority:
To make adjustment for shorter training of SSC male and female vis -a vis PC officers, the seniority of SSC male and
female officers will be depressed by the period corresponding to the difference in training period between the SSC
course under co nsideration and the training period of its equivalent PC Course. This adjustment of seniority will be
carried out at the time of grant of first substantive rank of captain. The revised seniority will have no effect on the pay
and allowances granted in th e rank of Capt. Major and Lt.Col.
(i) Reckonable Commissioned Service:
Subject to provision of Para 10 (h) above, reckonable commissioned service for the purpose of these orders will count
from the date of grant of Short Service Commission to an officer. The period of service forfeited by sentence of Court
Martial or any summary award under the Army Act and the period of absence without leave will not be reckonable.
The period during which furlough rates of pay are drawn and the period of captivity at PO Ws rates of pay will be
reckonable. The period of service for promotion lost by an officer in consequence of his/her having been granted
leave without pay will also be reckonable. Such an officer will, however, become entitled to the pay and allowances
of the higher substantive rank granted by the inclusion of this period only from the date on which he/she would have
qualified by service if this period had not been so reckoned and not with effect from the date of grant of substantive
rank.
(j) Leave : Leav e will be admissible in accordance with the Leave Rules for the Service Vol. 1 -Army as amended from
time to time.
For leave, officers will be governed by rules applicable to Short Service Commission officers as given in Chapter IV
of the Leave Rules for th e Service Vol.I -Army. They will also be entitled to leave on passing out of the Officers
Training Academy and before assumption of duties under the provision of the Rule 69 ibid.
SSC Women Officers will also be eligible for following kinds of Leave:
• Mate rnity Leave : Women Officers of the Army – Rule 56 of Chapter -IV of Leave Rule for the Services
Vol.I -Army, Fourth Edition.
• Child Care Leave: Women Officers of the Army – Rule 56A of Chapter -IV of Leave Rules for the
Services Vol. I - Army, Fourth Edition as amended vide GOI MoD letter No. B/33922/AG/PS -
2(b)/3080/D(AG -II) dated 19 Nov 2018.
• Child Adoption Leave: Women Officers of the Army – Rule 56B of Chapter -IV of Leave Rules for the
Services Vol. I -Army, Fourth Edition.
(k) Termination of Commission
The Co mmission of an officer may be terminated at any time by the Government of India for the following reasons: -
(i) For misconduct or if services are found to be unsatisfactory: or
(ii) on account of medical unfitness; or
(iii) if his/her services are no long er required or
(iv) if he/she fails to qualify in any prescribed test or course.
An officer may on giving 3 months notice be permitted to resign his/her commission on compassionate grounds of
which the Government of India will be the sole judge. An office r who is permitted to resign his/her commission on
compassionate grounds will not be eligible for terminal gratuity.
(l) Terminal Gratuity:
SSCO recruited from civil side are entitled to terminal gratuity @ 1/2 months emoluments for each completed six
mont hly period of service.
(m) Reserve Liability:
On being released on the expiry of contractual length of service of Short Service Commission or extension thereof (as
the case may be) they will carry a reserve liability for a period of five years plus two ye ars on voluntary basis or upto
the age of 40 years in case of Male Officers and 37 years in case of Women Officers which is earlier.
(n) Miscellaneous:
All other terms and conditions of service where not at variance with the above provisions will be the sa me as for
regular officers.
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