Full Text
EXTRAORDINARY
PART 1—Section III
PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY
No. 03] NEW DELHI, WEDNES DAY, DECEMBER 27, 2023/PAUS HA 6, 194 5
CG-DL-E-28122023-250937
योग : 400
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www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
इमेलः [email protected] याwww.joinindiannavy.gov.in
23010231 एकसटेंिन 7645/7646/7610 या www.joinindianarmy.nic.in .
प्रदक्रया www.careerindianair force.cdac.in
fibroid)
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.3 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.3 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.3 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.6 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.6 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.8 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4
164 48.4 59.2 61.9 64.6 67.2
165 49.0 59.9 62.6 65.3 68.1
166 49.6 60.6 63.4 66.1 68.9
167 50.2 61.4 64.1 66.9 69.7
168 50.8 62.1 64.9 67.7 70.6
169 51.4 62.8 65.7 68.5 71.4
170 52.0 63.6 66.5 69.4 72.3
171 52.6 64.3 67.3 70.2 73.1
172 53.3 65.1 68.0 71.0 74.0
173 53.9 65.8 68.8 71.8 74.8
174 54.5 66.6 69.6 72.7 75.7
175 55.1 67.4 70.4 73.5 76.6
176 55.8 68.1 71.2 74.3 77.4
177 56.4 68.9 72.1 75.2 78.3
178 57.0 69.7 72.9 76.0 79.2
179 57.7 70.5 73.7 76.9 80.1
180 58.3 71.3 74.5 77.8 81.0
181 59.0 72.1 75.4 78.6 81.9
182 59.6 72.9 76.2 79.5 82.8
183 60.3 73.7 77.0 80.4 83.7
184 60.9 74.5 77.9 81.3 84.6
185 61.6 75.3 78.7 82.1 85.6
186 62.3 76.1 79.6 83.0 86.5
187 62.9 76.9 80.4 83.9 87.4
188 63.6 77.8 81.3 84.8 88.4
189 64.3 78.6 82.2 85.7 89.3
190 65.0 79.4 83.0 86.6 90.3
191 65.7 80.3 83.9 87.6 91.2
192 66.4 81.1 84.8 88.5 92.2
193 67.0 81.9 85.7 89.4 93.1
194 67.7 82.8 86.6 90.3 94.1
195 68.4 83.7 87.5 91.3 95.1
196 69.1 84.5 88.4 92.2 96.0
197 69.9 85.4 89.3 93.1 97.0
198 70.6 86.2 90.2 94.1 98.0
199 71.3 87.1 91.1 95.0 99.0
200 72.0 88.0 92.0 96.0 100.0
201 72.7 88.9 92.9 97.0 101.0
202 73.4 89.8 93.8 97.9 102.0
203 74.2 90.7 94.8 98.9 103.0
204 74.9 91.6 95.7 99.9 104.0
205 75.6 92.5 96.7 100.9 105.1
206 76.4 93.4 97.6 101.8 106.1
207 77.1 94.3 98.6 102.8 107.1
208 77.9 95.2 99.5 103.8 108.2
209 78.6 96.1 100.5 104.8 109.2
210 79.4 97.0 101.4 105.8 110.3
6/36 6/60 एवं
6/60 3/60 एवं
3/60
1.47 37 45 40 45 40 48 40 50 40 52
1.48 37 46 41 46 41 48 41 50 41 53
1.49 38 47 41 47 41 49 41 51 41 53
1.5 38 47 42 47 42 50 42 52 42 54
1.51 39 48 42 48 42 50 42 52 42 55
1.52 39 49 43 49 43 51 43 53 43 55
1.53 40 49 43 49 43 51 43 54 43 56
1.54 40 50 44 50 44 52 44 55 44 57
1.55 41 50 44 50 44 53 44 55 44 58
1.56 41 51 45 51 45 54 45 56 45 58
1.57 42 52 46 52 46 54 46 57 46 59
1.58 42 52 46 52 46 55 46 57 46 60
1.59 43 53 47 53 47 56 47 58 47 61
1.6 44 54 47 54 47 56 47 59 47 61
1.61 44 54 48 54 48 57 48 60 48 62
1.62 45 55 49 55 49 58 49 60 49 63
1.63 45 56 49 56 49 58 49 61 49 64
1.64 46 56 50 56 50 59 50 62 50 65
1.65 46 57 50 57 50 60 50 63 50 65
1.66 47 58 51 58 51 61 51 63 51 66
1.67 47 59 52 59 52 61 52 64 52 67
1.68 48 59 52 59 52 62 52 65 52 68
1.69 49 60 53 60 53 63 53 66 53 69
1.7 49 61 53 61 53 64 53 66 53 69
1.71 50 61 54 61 54 64 54 67 54 70
1.72 50 62 55 62 55 65 55 68 55 71
1.73 51 63 55 63 55 66 55 69 55 72
1.74 51 64 56 64 56 67 56 70 56 73
1.75 52 64 57 64 57 67 57 70 57 74
1.76 53 65 57 65 57 68 57 71 57 74
1.77 53 66 58 66 58 69 58 72 58 75
1.78 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 73 59 76
1.79 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 74 59 77
1.8 55 68 60 68 60 71 60 75 60 78
1.81 56 69 61 69 61 72 61 75 61 79
1.82 56 70 61 70 61 73 61 76 61 79
1.83 57 70 62 70 62 74 62 77 62 80
1.84 58 71 63 71 63 74 63 78 63 81
1.85 58 72 63 72 63 75 63 79 63 82
1.86 59 73 64 73 64 76 64 80 64 83
1.87 59 73 65 73 65 77 65 80 65 84
1.88 60 74 65 74 65 78 65 81 65 85
1.89 61 75 66 75 66 79 66 82 66 86
1.9 61 76 67 76 67 79 67 83 67 87
1.91 62 77 67 77 67 80 67 84 67 88
1.92 63 77 68 77 68 81 68 85 68 88
1.93 63 78 69 78 69 82 69 86 69 89
1.94 64 79 70 79 70 83 70 87 70 90
1.95 65 80 70 80 70 84 70 87 70 91
(v) Complex Syndactyly . ऄनदफ़ट
(ज) Healed Fractures .
tissue involvement, crush component, alignment, mal -union/ non -union ऄथवा दकन्हीं जवजवध
(ट) Cubitus Valgus .
केmedial और lateral epicondyles पर bony landmarks की पहचान distal radial और
lateral और medial epicondyles क े midpoint से distal radial और ulnar styloid processes
(कघ) Distal neurovascular deficit
भीतर( ±1.0 D Cyl
(क) Mild ptosis
(ख) Clear visual axi s
(ग) Normal visual field
5. Exotropia. ऄनदफ़ट
7. Heterochromia Iridum . ऄनदफ़ट
दकसी observed pathology क े pupillary reflexes
9. Pseudophakia. ऄनदफ़ट
10. Lenticular Opacities . Lenticularopacity की वजह से कोइ Visual deterioration, ऄथवा visual axis में
में रखना चाजहए। Periphery में small stationary lenticular opacities जैसे congenital blue dot cataract,
11. Optic Nerve Drusen . ऄनदफ़ट
हो और glaucoma का कोइ और लक्षण न हो। High Cup Disc Ratio (>0.2)/Abnormal RNFL study/Visual
13. Keratoconus . ऄनदफ़ट
14. Lattice .
lattice .
(iii) Radial lattices.
(iv) Atrophic hole/flap tears (Unlasered) क े साथ कोइ lattice .
(v) posterior से equator तक Lattice degenerations .
lattice .
lattices .
delimitation single circumferential lattice .
delimitation two circumferential lattices .
Myringotomy(Effusion क े साथ Otitis Media क े जलए) या टाआप। tympa noplasty (tympanic membrame
(कक) Residual Perforation
(कख) Free Field Hearing जहयटरग तथा/या PTA पर Residual Hearing Loss
इयर सजसरी (Ossi culoplasty , Stapedotomy,canal wall down mastoidectomy,
atticotomy, a tticoantrostomy अदद)
middle ear implants सजहत अदद)
नोट:- Septal Deformity. Nasal septal perforation,anterior cartilaginous या posterior bony perforation
(i) Nasal polyposis . आसे polyposis (CRSWNP) सजहत Chronic Rhinosinusitis भी कहा जाता
(कघ) Pilonidal sinus 12 सिाह
(ii) Calyecdasis
(iii) Bladder Diverticulum
15-16 16-17 17-18 18-19
152 41 42.5 44 45
155 42 43.5 45.3 47
157 43 45 47 48
160 45 46.5 48 49
162 46 48 50 51
165 48 50 52 53
167 49 51 53 54
170 51 52.5 55 56
173 52.5 54.5 57 58
175 54.5 56 59 60
178 56 58 61 62
180 58.5 60 63 64.5
183 61 62.5 65 66.5
15-16 16-17 17-18 18-19
147 38 40 41 42
148 39 40 42 43
149 39 41 42 43
150 40 41 43 44
152 41 42.5 44 45
155 42 43.5 45.3 47
157 43 45 47 48
160 45 46.5 48 49
162 46 48 50 51
165 48 50 52 53
167 49 51 53 54
170 51 52.5 55 56
173 52.5 54.5 57 58
175 54.5 56 59 60
178 56 58 61 62
180 58.5 60 63 64.5
183 61 62.5 65 66.5
अयु (वषों में) 17-20 21-25 26-30 31-35 36-40 41-45
समंजन (सेमी में) 10-11 11-12 12.5-13.5 14-16 16-18.5 18.5-27
नाम, अद्याक्षर सजहत ......................................................................................................बैच सं0 ............. ................
चेस्ट्ट सं0 ........................................................................
6/36
6/36
मह. 5000/ - मह. 3,750/ - मह. 2500/ -
मह. 1800/ - मह. 1350/ - मह. 900/-
1 2 3 4 5
MINISTRY OF DEFENCE
NOTIFICATION
New Delhi, the 20th December , 2023
RULES
No. B/51725/153/Rtg (NDAEntry) 17(2)/2023 -DMA(AG -II).—The rules for the Compe titive Examination
viz National Defence Academy & Naval Academy Examination (I), 2024 to be held by Union Public Service
Commission on 21st April, 2024 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 153rd
Course and for the 115th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd January, 2025 are published.
The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the
Commission.
The approximate number of vacancies for to be filled on the results of this examination will be as under: —
National Defence
Academy : Army - 208 (including 10 for female candidates)
Navy – 42 (including 12 for female candidates)
Air Force - (i) Flying – 92 (including 02 for female candidates)
(ii) Grou nd Duties (Tech) – 18 (including 02 for female
candidates)
(iii) Ground Duties (Non Tech) – 10 (including 02 for female
candidates)
Naval Academy
(10+2 Cadet Entry
Scheme) : - 30 (including 09 for female candidates )
Total 400
The number of vacancies given in the Commission‘s Examination Notice is provisional and may be changed
depending on the availability of training capacity of National Defence Academy and Indian Naval Academy.
A candidate shall be required to mandatorily i ndicate order of preferences only for those services for which
he/she is interested to be allocated to, in the online application. No request for addition/alteration in the
preferences/order of preferences once submitted in the online application by a can didate will be entertained after the
expiry of a time period, if any, as may be indicated by the Commission, at its discretion, in its Notice for the
Examination.
2. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIB ILITY:
(a) Nationality: A candidate must be unmarried male/female and must be :
(i) a citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East
African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and
Ethiopia o r Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose
favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate o f eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha
subjects of Nepal.
(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status:
Only unmarried male/female candidates born not earlier than 02nd July, 2005 and not later than 01st
July, 20 08 are eligible.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary
School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to
Matriculation or in an extract from a Regis ter of Matriculates maintained by a University which must be
certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Secondary School Examination or an equivalent
examination certificates. These certificates are required to be submitted only after th e declaration of the result
of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth
extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression
Matriculation/ Secon dary School Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the
alternative certificates mentioned above.
NOTE 1: Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation
/Secondary School Examination Certificat e available or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of
applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered
or granted.
NOTE 2: Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been claimed by them and
entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be
allowed subsequently or at any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.
Provided that in case of an inadvertent/un intentional/typographical error committed by a candidate
in indicating the date of birth in the Online Application Form, the candidate may make a request to the
Commission for subsequent rectification along with supporting documents, as specified in the Ru le 2(b) of
the Examination and the request may be considered by the Commission if the same is made within a definite
time frame as may be notified by the Commission in its Notice for the Examination.
NOTE 3: The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the respective
column of the Online Application Form for the Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any
variation is found in their date of birth from the one e ntered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination
certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.
NOTE 4: The candidates should also note that no addition/deletion/any changes are allowed in
online appl ication form in the NDA & NA Examination in any circumstances once it is submitted and after
the expiry of time period, if any, as may be indicated by the Commission, at its discretion, in its Notice for
the Examination.
NOTE 5: Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A
candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application though successful at this or any subsequent
Examination will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be discharged
and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him/her by the Government.
(c) Educational Qualifications:
(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of
School Education or equivalent examina tion conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet
Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass with Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent conducted by a State Education
Board or a University.
Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of School Education or
equivalent examination can also apply for this examination.
Such candidates who qualify the SSB interview but could not produce Matriculation/10+2 or
equivalent certificate in original at the time of SSB interview should forward duly self attested Photocopies to
‗Directorate General of Recruiting, Army HQ, West Block.II I, R.K. Puram, New Delhi -110066‘ and for
Naval Academy candidates to ‗Naval Headquarters, DMPR, OI&R Section, Room No. 204, ‗C‘ Wing, Sena
Bhavan, New Delhi -110011‘ by 24th December, 2024 failing which their candidature will be cancelled. All
other candida tes who have produced their Matriculation and 10+2 pass or equivalent certificates in original at
the time of attending the SSB interview and have got the same verified by the SSB authorities are not
required to submit the same to Army HQ or Naval HQ as th e case may be. Certificates in original issued by
the Principals of the Institutions are also acceptable in cases where Boards/Universities have not yet issued
certificates. Certified true copies/photostat copies of such certificates will not be accepted.
In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the
qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that the candidate possesses
qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to the
examination.
NOTE 1: Candidates appearing in the 11th class exam are not eligible for this examination.
NOTE 2: Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the 12th class or equivalent examination and
are al lowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to
them. They are required to submit proof of passing the 12th class or equivalent examination by the prescribed
date (i.e. 24th December, 2024) and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of
late conduct of Board/University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground
whatsoever.
NOTE 3 : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any t ype of
commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted,
their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE 4: Those candidates, who have failed CPSS/PABT earlier, are now eligible for Air Force in
Ground Du ty branches if they fill their willingness in the Online Application Form available at the
Commission‘s website.
(d) Physical Standards:
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to National Defence
Academy and Naval A cademy Examination (I), 2024 as per guidelines given in the Appendix -II.
(e) A candidate who has resigned or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from any of the training
academies of Armed Forces is not eligible to apply.
3. FEE
Candidates (excepting SC/ST/ female candidates, wards of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in the Commission‘s
Notice) must pay the fee as prescribed in the Commission‘s Examination Notice.
The wards of serving/ex -Junior Commissioned Officers/Non -Commissioned Officers/Other Ranks of Army
and e quivalent ranks in the Indian Navy/Indian Air Force are also not required to pay the prescribed fee if they are
studying in Military School (formerly known as King George's School)/Sainik School run by Sainik Schools Society.
A certificate of eligibility for fee exemption is required to be obtained by all such candidates from the
Principals concerned individually and produced for verification at the time of SSB Test/Interview by the
candidates who are declared qualified for the SSB Test/Interview.
4. All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the Armed Forces,
Sailors (including boys and artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy, Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College
(previously known as Sainik School, Dehra dun), Students of Rashtriya Military Schools (formerly known as Military
Schools) and Sainik Schools run by Sainik Schools Society, Government owned industrial undertakings or other
similar organizations or in private employment should apply online direct to the Commission.
5. Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged
employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises; (b) Candidates
serving in the Arm ed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy; and (c) Cadets of
Rashtriya Indian Military College (previously known as Sainik School, Dehra Dun), Students of Military Schools
formerly known as King George's Schools and Sainik Schools run by Sainik Schools Society are required to inform
their Head of Office/Department, Commanding Officer, Principals of College/School concerned, as the case may be,
in writing that they have applied for this examination.
Note: Candidates s hould note that in case a communication is received by the Commission from their
employer/authority concerned withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination,
their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidature w ill be liable to be cancelled.
6. The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of candidate for admission to the
examination shall be final.
The candidate applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for
admission to the examination. Their admission to the all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional
subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after any stage o f
the examination, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions their candidature will be cancelled
by the Commission.
7. No candidate will be admitted to the examination unless he holds a certificate of admission for the
examinatio n.
8. All the candidates who have successfully qualified in the written examination are required to register
themselves online on Directorate General of Recruiting website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. with the same E -mail ID
as provided to UPSC while filling UPSC online application Candidates must ensure that their e -mail Ids given in their
online applications are valid and active. These candidates would then be allotted Selection Centres through the
aforesaid website. In case of any problems/queries, candid ates should contact Directorate General of Recruiting on the
telephone numbers given on their website or through feedback / query module after logging on to their profile.
CANDIDATES WHO HAVE PASSED WRITTEN TEST ARE NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT THEIR
ORIGINAL C ERTIFICATE OF AGE AN D EDUCATIONAL QUALIF ICATION EITHER TO DI RECTORATE
GENERAL OF RECRUITIN G, ARMY HQ, WEST BLO CK-III, RK PURAM, NEW D ELHI -110066 OR TO
NAVAL HEADQUARTERS, DMPR, OI&R SECTION, 'C' WING, SENA BHAWA N, NEW DELHI -110011.
ALL CANDIDATES CALLED F OR INTERVIEW MUST CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL
MATRICULATION CERTIFICATE OR EQUIVALENT EXAMINATION CERTIFICATE TO THE SERVICES
SELECTION BOARD (SSB). ORIGINALS WILL HAVE TO BE PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES WHO
QUALIFY AT THE SSB INTERVIEW SOON AFTER THE INTERVIEW. TH E ORIGINALS WILL BE
RETURNED AFTER VERIFICATION. THOSE CANDIDATES WHO HAVE ALREADY PASSED 10+2
EXAMINATION MUST CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL 10+2 PASS CERTIFICATE OR MARKS SHEET FOR THE
SSB INTERVIEW.
IF ANY OF THEIR CLAIMS IS FOUND TO BE INCORRECT THEY MAY REND ER THEMSELVES
LIABLE TO DISCIPLINARY ACTION BY THE COMMISSION IN TERMS OF THE FOLLOWING
PROVISIONS:
9. (1) If any of their claims is found to be incorrect/false/fraud/fabricated they may render themselves liable to
disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of the following provisions:
A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission or respective service HQ to be guilty of: -
(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely: —
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the
examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or doc uments which have been tampered with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photos/signature in the application form in p lace of actual
photo/signature.
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or
(g) resor ting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely :—
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means;
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the
examinatio n;
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall includ ing tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to
boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct
of their examination; or
(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone (even in switched -off mode), pager or any other
incriminating material (notes on e -admit card, papers, eraser etc.) or any other electronic equipment or
programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart/digital watches etc. or camera or bluetooth
devices or IT gadgets, any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched off
mode) capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or
(m) violating any of th e instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting
them to take the examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified
in the foregoing clauses; i n addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the
Commission from the Examination held under these Rules, and /or shall be liable to be debarred either
permanently or for a specified period: -
(i) by the Commission, from any e xamination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them; And shall be liable to face
disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service under Government.
Provided that no penalty under this ru le shall be imposed except after: —
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate
may wish to make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period a llowed for the
purpose, into consideration.
9. (2) Any person who is found by the Commission or respective service HQ to be guilty of colluding with a
candidate (s) in committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at Clauses (a) to (m ) above
render himself/herself liable to action in terms of the Clause (n).
10. TRAVELLING ALLOWANCE:
Candidates appearing for SSB interview for the first time for a particular type of Commission i.e. Permanent
or Short Service, shall be entitled for AC I II Tier to and fro railway fare or bus fare including reservation cum sleeper
charges within the Indian limits. Candidates who apply again for the same type of Commission will not be entitled to
travelling allowance on any subsequent occasion.
11. CORRESPO NDENCE WITH THE ARMY/NAVY/AIR FORCE HEADQUARTERS:
All Communications to the ARMY/NAVY/AIR HEADQUARTERS should invariably contain the following
particulars.
1. Name and year of the examination.
2. Registration ID (RID).
3. Roll Number (if received).
4. Nam e of candidate (in full and in block letters).
5. Postal Address as given in the application.
N.B. (i) : Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to.
N.B. (ii) : If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has been held and it
does not give his full name and roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be taken thereon. Candidates
recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection Board who have changed their addresses
subsequent to the submission of their applications for the examination should immediately after announcement of the
result of the written part of the examination notify the changed address also to: —
For candidates with Army as first choice —Army Headquart ers, A.G‘s Branch, R TG (NDA Entry), West
Block -III, Wing -1, R. K. Puram, New Delhi -110066, Phone No. 26175473.
For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice — Naval Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower &
Recruitment, OI&R Section, R. No. 204, ‗C ‘ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi -110011, Phone No. 23010097/
23011282.
For candidates with Air Force as first choice Dte of Personnel(Officers), Air Headquarters, (VB) Room No
838. `A‘ Block, Defence Offices Complex, Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi -110001 P hone No. 23010231 Extn
7645/7646/7610.
FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THIS INSTRUCTION WILL DEPRIVE THE CANDIDATE OF ANY
CLAIM TO CONSIDERATION IN THE EVENT OF HIS/HER NOT RECEIVING THE SUMMONS LETTER FOR
INTERVIEW BY THE SERVICES SELECTION BOARD.
AFTER HAVING CLEARED THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION THE CANDIDATES SHOULD LOG ON
TO THE FOLLOWING WEBSITES FOR THEIR SSB CENTRE & DATE OF INTERVIEW: -
www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
The candidates with Air Force as first choice are also to register on www.joinindianarmy.nic.in for AFSB
and date selection.
Candidates whose names have been recommended for interview by the Services Selection Board should
address enquiries or requests, if any, relating to their interview or visit website of resp ective service headquarters after
20 days from the announcement of written results as follows: —
For candidates with Army as first choice —Army Headquarters, AG‘s Branch, RTG (NDA Entry), West
Block -III, Wing -1, R.K. Puram, New Delhi – 110 066, Phone No. 26 175473 or www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice — Naval Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower &
Recruitment, O.I. & R. Section, Room No. 204, ‗C‘ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi -110011, Phone No.
23011282/23010151 Em ail: [email protected] or www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
For candidates with Air Force as first choice — Dte of Personnel (Officers), Air Headquarters, (VB) Room
No 838. ‗A‘ Block, Def ence Offices Complex, Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi -110001 Phone No. 23010231 Extn
7645/7646/7610.
Candidates are required to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to them in the call up letter for
interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be considered in exceptional circumstances and that too if it is
administratively convenient for which Army Headquarters will be the sole deciding authority. Such requests should be
addressed to the Administrative Officer of the Selection Centre from where the call letter for interview has been
received. No action will be taken on letters received by Army/Navy/Air HQs. SSB interview for the candidates
qualified in the written examination will be held during the months of July 2024 to September 20 24 or as suitable to
Recruiting Directorate. For all queries regarding Merit list, joining instructions and any other relevant information
regarding selection process, please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
12. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE W RITTEN EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF
QUALIFIED CANDIDATES , ANNOUNCEMENT OF FI NAL RESULTS AND ADMI SSION TO THE
TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIE D CANDIDATES:
The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum q ualifying
marks in the written examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion. Such candidates shall appear before a
Services Selection Board for Intelligence and Personality Test where candidates for the Army/Navy wings of the NDA
and 10+2 Cad et Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be assessed on Officers Potentiality and those for the
Air Force in addition to the above will have to qualify Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS). Candidates
with Air Force as one of the choice would also undergo CPSS if they qualify SSB and are willing.
13. TWO -STAGE SELECTION PROC EDURE
Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and Intelligence Test has been
introduced at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval S election Boards. All the candidates will be put to
stage -one test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards. Only
those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted to the second stage/remainin g tests. Those candidates who
qualify stage II will be required to submit the Original Certificates along with one photocopy each of: (i) Original
Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Original 10+2 pass certificate or equivalent
in support of educational qualification.
Candidates who appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there, will do so at their own risk and
will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which they
may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the Services Selection Board whether due
to the negligence of any person or otherwise. Parents or guardians of the candidates will be require d to sign a
certificate to this effect.
To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/Navy/Naval Academy and Air Force should secure the minimum
qualifying marks separately in (i) Written examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion and (ii) Of ficer
Potentiality Test as fixed by the Services Selection Board at their discretion. Over and above candidates for the Air
Force, and all the SSB qualified candidates as per their willingness, eligibility and preference for flying branch of Air
Force, sho uld separately qualify the CPSS.
Subject to these conditions the qualified candidates will then be placed in a single combined list on the basis
of total marks secured by them in the Written Examination and the Services Selection Board Tests. The final
allocation/selection for admission to the Army, Navy, Air Force of the National Defence Academy and 10+2 Cadet
Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be made upto the number of vacancies available subject to eligibility,
medical fitness and merit -cum-preference of the candidates. The candidates who are eligible to be admitted to multiple
Services/Courses will be considered for allocation/selection with reference to their order or preferences and in the
event of their final allocation/ selection to one Serv ice/Course, they will not be considered for admission to other
remaining Services/Courses.
N.B.: EVERY CANDIDAT E FOR THE FLYING BRA NCH OF AIR FORCE IS GIVEN
COMPUTERISED PILOT S ELECTION SYSTEM (CPS S) (PILOT APTITUDE T EST) ONLY ONCE. THE
GRADES SECURED BY HIM/HER AT THE FIRST TEST WILL THEREFORE HOLD GOOD FOR
EVERY SUBSEQUENT INT ERVIEW HE HAS WITH T HE AIR FORCE SELECTI ON BOARD. A
CANDIDATE WHO FAILS IN THE CPSS CANNOT A PPLY FOR ADMISSION T O THE NATIONAL
DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAM INATION FOR THE FLYI NG BRANCH OF A IR FORCE WING OR
GENERAL DUTIES (PILO T) BRANCH OR NAVAL A IR ARM.
Candidates who have been given the Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) for any previous N.D.A.
course should submit their application for this examination for the Air Force Wing only if they have been notified as
having qualified in CPSS. In case a candidate has failed in CPSS/not tested for CPSS for being HWG, the candidate
would be considered for Ground Duty branch of IAF, Navy, Army and NAVAC as per his choices.
The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to individual candidates shall be
decided by the Commission at their discretion and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them
regarding the result.
Success in the examination confers no right of admission to the Academy. A candidate must satisfy the
appointing authority that he/she is suitable in all respects for admission to the Academy.
14. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRA INING COURSE :
Candidates who were admitted to an earli er course at the National Defence Academy, or to the 10 + 2 Cadet
Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy but were removed there from for lack of officer -like qualities or on
disciplinary grounds will not be admitted to the Academy.
Candidates who were previ ously withdrawn from the National Defence Academy or Indian Naval Academy
on medical grounds or left the above Academy voluntarily are however, eligible for admission to the Academy
provided they satisfy the medical and other prescribed conditions.
15. The details regarding (a) the scheme and syllabus of the examination, (b) Physical standards for admission to
the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy and (c) Brief particulars of the service etc., for candidates joining
the National Defence Academy an d Naval Academy are given in Appendices I, II and III respectively.
MAJOR GENERAL G. S. CHOUDHRY, Jt. Secy . (Army & TA)
APPENDIX -I
(The Scheme and Syllabus of Examination )
A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowe d and the maximum marks allotted to each subject
will be as follows: —
Subject Code Duration Maximum
Marks
Mathematics 01 2½ Hours 300
General Ability Test 02 2½ Hours 600
Total 900
SSB Test/Interview: 900
2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL C ONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY.
THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART ―B‖ OF GENERAL ABILITY
TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.
3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the me tric system of Weights and Measures
only will be set.
4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a
scribe to write answers for them.
5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.
6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering
objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
B. SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
PAPER -I
MATHEMATICS
(Code No. 01)
(Maximum Marks -300)
1. ALGEBRA
Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence
relation.
Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers — basic properties, modulus, argument, cube
roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice -versa.
Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations wit h real coefficients. Solution of linear
inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications.
Logarithms and their applications.
2. MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS:
Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint
and inverse of a square matrix, Applications -Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three unknowns by
Cramer‘s rule and by Matrix Method.
3. TRIGONOMETRY:
Angles and their meas ures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and
difference formulae. Multiple and Sub -multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications -Height and
distance, properties of triangles.
4. ANALYTICAL GEOMET RY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:
Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms. Angle
between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard
forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a three dimensional space, distance
between two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and direction
ratios. Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and angle between two planes.
Equation of a sphere.
5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS:
Concept of a real valued function –domain, range and graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one,
onto and inverse f unctions. Notion of limit, Standard limits —examples. Continuity of functions —examples, algebraic
operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a
derivative —applications. Derivatives of sum , product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect
to another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions.
Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima.
6. INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS:
Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving
algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. E valuation of definite integrals —
determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves — applications.
Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples.
General and particular solution of a diff erential equations, solution of first order and first degree differential equations
of various types —examples. Application in problems of growth and decay.
7. VECTOR ALGEBRA:
Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit a nd null vectors, addition of
vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of two vectors. Vector product or cross product
of two vectors. Applications —work done by a force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems.
8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY:
Statistics: Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution — examples.
Graphical representation — Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon — examples. Measures of Central tendency —
Mean, median and mode. Variance and standard deviation — determination and comparison. Correlation and
regression.
Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and
exhaustive events, impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and
composite events. Definition of probability —classical and statistical —examples. Elementary theorems on
probability —simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes‘ theorem —simple problems. Random v ariable as
function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binominal
distribution.
PAPER -II
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Code No. 02)
(Maximum Marks —600)
Part ‘A’ —ENGLISH (Maximum Marks —200)
The question paper in E nglish will be designed to test the candidate‘s understanding of English and workman like use
of words. The syllabus covers various aspects like : Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in
extended text to test the candidate‘s proficienc y in English.
Part ‘B’ —GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks —400)
The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover the subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General
Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events.
The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects included in this paper. The topics
mentioned are not to be regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature not specifically mentioned in
the syllabus may also be asked. Candidate‘s answers are expec ted to show their knowledge and intelligent
understanding of the subject.
Section ‘A’ (Physics)
Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of
Archimedes, Pressure Barometer.
Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton‘s Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum,
Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and
Energy.
Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of
transference of Heat.
Sound waves and their properties, Simple musical instruments.
Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye.
Natural and Artificial Magnets, Pro perties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet.
Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Non -conductors, Ohm‘s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits,
Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells,
Use of X -Rays.
General Principles in the working of the following:
Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos
Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, Mariner‘s Compass; Lightening
Conductors, Safety Fuses.
Section ‘B’ (Chemistry)
Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple
Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems). Properties of Air an d Water.
Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction.
Acids, bases and salts.
Carbon —different forms.
Fertilizers —Natural and Artificial.
Material used in the preparation of substances like Soap, Gla ss, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety Matches and Gun -
Powder
Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.
Section ‘C’ (General Science)
Difference between the living and non -living.
Basis of Life —Cells, P rotoplasms and Tissues.
Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals.
Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs.
Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention.
Food —Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet.
The Solar System —Meteors and Comets, Eclipses.
Achievements of Eminent Scientists.
Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.)
A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation.
Freedom Movement in India.
Elementary study of Indian Consti tution and Administration.
Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India.
Panchayati Raj, Co -operatives and Community Development.
Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi.
Forces shaping the modern w orld; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American Independence. French
Revolution, Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science and Technology on Society. Concept of
one World, United Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy, Socialism and Communism. Role of India in the present world.
Section ‘E’ (Geography)
The Earth, its shape and size. Latitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time. International Date Line.
Movements of Earth and their effects.
Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classifi cation; Weathering —Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and
Volcanoes.
Ocean Currents and Tides.
Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and
Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation; Types of Climate, Major Natural regions of the World.
Regional Geography of India —Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and
distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities.
Important Sea ports and main sea, land and ai r routes of India. Main items of Imports and Exports of India.
Section ‘F’ (Current Events)
Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years. Current important world
events.
Prominent personalities —both Indian and Internatio nal including those connected with cultural activities and sports.
NOTE :
Out of maximum marks assigned to part ‗B‘ of this paper, questions on Sections ‗A‘, ‗B‘, ‗C‘, ‗D‘, ‗E‘ and ‗F‘ will
carry approximately 25%, 15%, 10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weightages res pectively.
Intelligence and Personality Test
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who
clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are :
(a) Stage I comprises of O fficer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception and Description Test
(PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psy chology Tests and the Conference. These
tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Office r (IO),
Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The marks are
allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the tests.
In addition , marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three
techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.
The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/ab sence of Officer Like
Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the
SSB.
APPENDIX –II
GUIDELINES FOR PHYSI CAL STANDARDS FOR AD MISSION TO THE NATIO NAL DEFENCE
ACADEMY.
NOTE : CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSICALLY AND MENTALLY FIT ACCORDING TO THE PRESCRIBED
PHYSICAL STANDARDS. MEDICAL FITNESS CRITERIA GIVEN BELOW ARE AS PER EXISTING
GUIDELINES AS ON DATE OF PUBLICATION AND THESE GULIDELINES ARE SUBJECT TO REVISION.
A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES A RE REJECTED SUBSEQUENTLY ON MEDICAL GROUNDS.
CANDIDATES ARE THEREFORE ADVISED IN THEIR OWN INTEREST TO GET THEMSELVES
MEDICALLY EXAMINED BEFORE SUBMITTING THEIR APPLICATIONS TO AVOID DISAPPOINTMENT
AT THE FINAL STAGE.
1. Candidates are also advised to rect ify minor defects/ailments in order to speed up finalisation of medical
examination conducted at the Military Hospital after being recommended at the SSB.
2. Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below:
(a) Wax (Ears)
(b) Deviated Nasal Se ptum
(c) Hydrocele/Phimosis
(d) Overweight/Underweight
(e) Under Sized Chest
(f) Piles
(g) Gynaecomastia
(h) Tonsillitis
(i) Varicocele
NOTE: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e. from inside of elbow to the wrist and
on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand/Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body are not
acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on the face or body as per
their existing custom and t raditions will be permitted on a case to case basis. Comdt Selection Centre will be
competent auth for clearing such cases.
3. Civilian candidates appearing for all types of commission in the Armed Forces will be entitled to out -patients
treatment from ser vice sources at public expense for injuries sustained or diseases contracted during the course of their
examination by the Selection Board. They will also be entitled to in -patient treatment at public expense in the
Officer‘s ward of a hospital provided —
(a) the injury is sustained during the tests or,
(b) the disease is contracted during the course of the examination by selection board and there is no
suitable accommodation in local civil hospital or it is impracticable to remove the patient to the civil
hospital; or,
(c) the medical board requires the candidate‘s admission for observation.
NOTE: They are not entitled to special nursing.
4. Medical Procedure
A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a medical examination by a Bo ard
of Service Medical Officers. Only those candidates will be admitted to the academy who are declared fit by the
Medical Board. The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential and will not be divulged to anyone. However,
the candidates declared unf it will be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and the procedure for request for
an Appeal Medical Board will also be intimated to the candidate.
5. Candidates declared unfit during Appeal Medical Board will be intimated about the provision of Review
Medical Board.
6. Medical Standards and procedure for Army, Navy and Air Force (Flying Branch and Ground Duty Branch)
are given in Annexure ‗A‘. Annexure ‗B‘ and Annexure ‗C‘ respectively, which is also available at following
websites: -
(i) For Offi cers Entry into Army Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination at
www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
(ii) For Officers Entry for Air Force (flying & Ground duty bran ches) Medical Standards and Procedure of
Medical Examination at www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in
(iii) For Officers Entry for Navy: M edical Standards and Medical Examination at
www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
Note: The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential will not be divulged to anyone. Directorate
General of Recruiting has no role to play in any Medical Boards and procedure advised by the competent
medical author ities will be strictly adhered.
MEDICAL EXAMINATION OF FEMALE CANDIDATES
1. General methods and principles of medical examination of female candidates will be the same as for male
candidates. However, special points pertaining to Medical Examination of female candidates are given in succeeding
paragraphs.
2. A detailed menstrual, gynaecological and obstetric history in the form of a questionnaire is to be obtained from the
candidate.
3. A detailed physical and systemic examination will be carried out of the candidat e and she should be examined by a
Lady Medical Officer or a Lady Gynecologist only.
4. The examination must include the following inspections: -
(a) External genitalia.
(b) Hernial orifices and the perineum.
(c) Any evidence of stress urinary incontinence or genital prola psed outside introitus.
(d) Evidence of lump breast and galactorrhoea
5. In all unmarried female candidates, speculum or per vaginal examination will not be carried out.
6. Ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis is mandatory in all female candidates during the in itial Medical
Examination.
7. Any abnormality of external genitalia will be considered on merits of each case. Significant hirsutism especially
with male pattern of hair growth along with radiological evidence of PCOS, will be a cause for rejection.
8. Following conditions will entail female candidates being declared unfit:
(a) Primary or secondary amenorrhoea
(b) Severe Menorrhagia or/ and severe dysmenorrhea.
(c) Stress urinary incontinence
(d) Congenital elongation of cervix or prolapsed which comes outside the introitus even after corrective
surgery.
(e) Pregnancy . Pregnancy will be a cause of rejection for NDA entry.
(f) Complex ovarian cyst of any size.
(g) Simple ovarian cyst more than six cm.
(h) Endometriosis and Adenomyosis.
(i) Submucous fibroid of any size.
(j) Broad ligament or cervical fi broid of any size causing pressure over ureter.
(k) Single fibroid uterus more than three cm in diameter; fibroids more than two in number (each fibroid not
more than fifteen mm in diameter) or fibroids causing distortion of endometrial cavity.
(l) Congenital uter ine anomalies except arcuate uterus.
(m) Acute or chronic pelvic infection.
(n) Disorders of sexual differentiation.
(o) Any other condition will be considered on merits of each case by the Gynaecologist.
9. Following conditions will be declared as FIT:-
(a) Unilocular clear ovarian cyst up to six cm.
(b) Minimal fluid in pouch of Douglas.
Medical fitness after laparoscopic surgery or laparotomy . Candidates reporting after undergoing cystectomy or
myomectomy will be accepted as fit if she is asymptomatic, ultrasound pelvis is nor mal, histopathology of tissues
removed is benign and per operative findings are not suggestive of endometriosis. Fitness will be considered twelve
weeks after laparoscopic surgery and when the wound has healed fully. Candidate will be considered FIT after
laprotomy one year after the surgical procedure.
Annexure -A
MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION
FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO ARMY
1. Introduction :
(a) The primary responsibility of the Armed Forces is defending territorial integrity of th e nation. For
this purpose Armed Forces should always be prepared for war. Armed Forces personnel undergo rigorous
training in preparation for war. Armed Forces also assist civil authorities if required whenever the need arises
like in the case of disaster s. To carry out such tasks Armed Forces requires candidates with robust mental
and physical health. Such candidates should also be capable of withstanding rigorous stress and strain of
service conditions to perform their military duties in adverse terrain and uncongenial climate incl sea and air,
in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical facilities. A medically unfit individual due to
disease/disability can not only drain precious resources but can also jeopardize lives of other members of the
team during operations. Therefore only medically fit candidates are selected who emerge fit to be trained for
war.
(b) The Armed Forces Medical Services are responsible for ensuring selection of ‗ Medically Fit’
individuals into the Armed Forces.
(c) All Armed Forces personnel regardless of occupational specialty, unit assignment, age or gender
should have a basic level of general ‗ Medical fitness’ when inducted into service. This basic level of fitness
can then be used as a benchmark to train personnel for further physically demanding occupational specialties
or unit assignments. This will enhance deployable combat readiness.
(d) Medical examinations are carried out meticulously by Armed Forces Medical Services Medical
Officers. These Medical Officers are well oriented to specific working conditions of Armed Forces after
undergoing basic military training. Medical examinations are finalized by the Board of Medical Officers. The
decision of the Medical Board is final. In case of any doubt about any disea se/disability/injury/genetic
disorder etc noticed during enrolment/ commissioning, the benefit of doubt will be given to State .
Medical Standards .
2. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are general guidelines. They are not exhaustive i n
view of the vast knowledge of disease. These standards are subject to change with advancement in the scientific
knowledge and change in working conditions of Armed Forces due to introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes
will be promulgated from time to time by policy letters by competent authorities. Medical Officers, Spl Medical
Officers and Medical Boards will take appropriate decisions based on following guidelines and principles.
3. To be deemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good physic al and mental health and free from
any disease/syndrome/disability likely to interfere with the efficient performance of military duties in any
terrain, climate, season incl sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical aid. Candidate
also should be free of medical conditions which require frequent visit to medical facilities and use of any aid /
drugs.
(a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health. There should be no evidence of weak
constitution, imperfect develop ment of any system, any congenital deformities/ diseases/syndrome
or malformation.
(b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s anywhere on the body. No sinus/es or
fistula/e anywhere on the body.
(c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other disease/syndrome/disability of the skin.
(d) No hernia anywhere on the body.
(e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause significant disfigurement.
(f) No arterio -venous malformation anywhere in/on the body.
(g) No malformation of the h ead and face including asymmetry, deformity from fracture or depression
of the bones of the skull; or scars indicating old operative interference and malformation like sinuses
and fistulae etc.
(h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and f ield of vision.
(j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears vestibule -cochlear system.
(k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology.
(l) No disease/disability/ congenital anomaly/syndrome of the bones or cartilages of the nose, or pala te,
nasal polyps or disease of the naso -Pharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses. There should be no nasal
deformity and no features of chronic tonsillitis.
(m) No disease /syndrome/disability of the throat, palate tonsils or gums or any disease or injury
affecting the normal function of either mandibular joint.
(n) No disease /syndrome/disability of the heart and blood vessels incl congenital, genetic, organic
incl hypertension, and conduction disorders.
(o) No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of this disease or any other
disease/syndrome/disability chronic disease of the lungs and chest including
allergies/immunological conditions, connective tissue disorders, musculoskeletal deformities of
chest.
(p) No disease of the digestive syste m including any abnormality of the liver, pancreas incl endocrinal,
congenital, hereditary or genetic diseases /syndromes and disabilities.
(q) No diseases/syndrome/disability of any endocrinal system, reticuloendothelial system.
(r) No diseases/ syndrom e/ disability of genito -urinary system including malformations, atrophy/
hypertrophy of any organ or gland.
(s) No active, latent or congenital venereal disease.
(t) No history or evidence of mental disease, epilepsy, incontinence of urine or enuresis.
(u) No disease/deformity/syndrome of musculo -skeletal system and joints incl skull, spine and limbs.
(v) There is no congenital or hereditary disease/ syndrome/disability.
4. Psychological examinations will be carried out during SSB selection procedure. How ever, any abnormal
traits noticed during medical examination will be a cause for rejection.
5. Based on the above mentioned guidelines usual medical conditions which lead to rejection are: -
(a) Musculo -skeletal deformities of spine, chest and pelvis, limb s e.g. scoliosis, torticollis, kyphosis,
deformities of vertebrae, ribs, sternum, clavicle, other bones of skeleton, mal -united fractures,
deformed limbs, fingers, toes and congenital deformities of spine.
(b) Deformities of Limbs: Deformed limbs, toes an d fingers, deformed joints like cubitus valgus,
cubitus varus, knock knees, bow legs, hyper mobile joints, amputated toes or fingers and shortened
limbs.
(c) Vision and eye: Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, lesions of cornea, lens, retina, squint and
ptosis.
(d) Hearing, ears, nose and throat: Sub standard hearing capability, lesions of pinna, tympanic
membranes, middle ear, deviated nasal septum, and congenital abnormalities of lips, palate, peri -
auricular sinuses and lymphadenitis/ adenopathy of neck. Hearing capacity should be 610 cm for
Conversational Voice and Forced Whispering for each ear.
(e) Dental conditions: -
(i) Incipient pathological conditions of the jaws , which are known to be progressive or
recurrent.
(ii) Significant jaw discrepancies bet ween upper and lower jaw which may hamper efficient
mastication and/or speech will be a cause for rejection.
(iii) Symptomatic Temporo -Mandibular Joint clicking and tenderness. A mouth opening of less
than 30 mm measured at the incisal edges, Dislocation of the TMJ on wide opening.
(iv) All potentially cancerous conditions.
(v) Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of mouth opening.
(vi) Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal pockets an d/or
bleeding from gums.
(vii) Loose teeth: More than two mobile teeth will render the candidate unfit.
(viii) Cosmetic or post -traumatic maxillofacial surgery/trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24
weeks from the date of surgery/injury whichever is later.
(ix) If malocclusion of teeth is hampering efficient mastication, maintenance of oral hygiene or
general nutrition or performance of duties efficiently .
(f) Chest: Tuberculosis, or evidence of tuberculosis, lesions of lungs, heart, musculo skeletal lesio ns of
chest wall.
(g) Abdomen and genitor -urinary system: Hernia, un -descended testis, varicocele, organomegaly,
solitary kidney, horseshoe kidney & cysts in the kidney/liver, Gall bladder stones, renal and ureteric
stones, lesions/deformities of urogenita l organs, piles, sinuses and lymphadenitis/pathy.
(h) Nervous system: Tremors, speech impediment and imbalance.
(j) Skin: Vitiligo, haemangiomas, warts, corns, dermatitis, skin infections growths and hyperhydrosis.
6. Height and Weight Standards for Female Candidates joining NDA (Army) :
Age (yrs) Minimum weight for
all ages Age: 17 to 20
yrs Age: 20 +01 day -
30 yrs Age : 30 + 01
Day- 40 yrs Age: Above 40
yrs
Height
(cm) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg)
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.8 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4
(a) The minimum height required for entry into the Armed Forces for female Candidates is 152 cm.
Gorkhas and candidates belonging to Hills of North Eastern region of India, Garhwal and Kumaon
will be accepted with a minimum height of 148 cm. An allowance for growth of 02 cm will be made
for candidates below 18 yrs at the time of examination. The minimum height requirement for the
Flying Branch is 163 cm. Flying Branch also requires other anthropometric standards like sitting
height, leg length and thigh length.
(b) Weight for height charts given below is for all categ ories of personnel. This chart is prepared based
on the BMI. The chart specifies the minimum acceptable weight that candidates of a particular
height must have. Weights below the minimum specified will not be acceptable in any case. The
maximum acceptable weight of height has been specified in age wise categories. Weights higher
than the acceptable limit will be acceptable only in the case of candidates with documented evidence
of body building, wrestling, and boxing at the National level. In such cases the following criteria
will have to be met.
(i) Body Mass Index should be below 25.
(ii) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for male and 0.8 for female.
(iii) Waist Circumference should be less than 90 cm for male and 80 cm for female.
(iv) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal limits.
Note : The height and weight for candidates below 17 years will be followed as per guidelines by ‗Indian Academy of
Paediatrics growth charts for height, weight and BMI for 05 Years to 16 Years old children‘ amended from time to
time.
7. Height and Weight Standards for Male Candidates joining NDA (Army) : Height requirement varies as
per the stream of entry. Weight should be proportionate to height as per the chart given below: -
Age (yrs) Minimum
weight for
all ages Age: 17 to 20
yrs Age: 20+01 day - 30
yrs Age: 30 + 01 day - 40
yrs Age: Above 40
yrs
Height
(cm) Weight
(Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg)
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.8 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4
164 48.4 59.2 61.9 64.6 67.2
165 49.0 59.9 62.6 65.3 68.1
166 49.6 60.6 63.4 66.1 68.9
167 50.2 61.4 64.1 66.9 69.7
168 50.8 62.1 64.9 67.7 70.6
169 51.4 62.8 65.7 68.5 71.4
170 52.0 63.6 66.5 69.4 72.3
171 52.6 64.3 67.3 70.2 73.1
172 53.3 65.1 68.0 71.0 74.0
173 53.9 65.8 68.8 71.8 74.8
174 54.5 66.6 69.6 72.7 75.7
175 55.1 67.4 70.4 73.5 76.6
176 55.8 68.1 71.2 74.3 77.4
177 56.4 68.9 72.1 75.2 78.3
178 57.0 69.7 72.9 76.0 79.2
179 57.7 70.5 73.7 76.9 80.1
180 58.3 71.3 74.5 77.8 81.0
181 59.0 72.1 75.4 78.6 81.9
182 59.6 72.9 76.2 79.5 82.8
183 60.3 73.7 77.0 80.4 83.7
184 60.9 74.5 77.9 81.3 84.6
185 61.6 75.3 78.7 82.1 85.6
186 62.3 76.1 79.6 83.0 86.5
187 62.9 76.9 80.4 83.9 87.4
188 63.6 77.8 81.3 84.8 88.4
189 64.3 78.6 82.2 85.7 89.3
190 65.0 79.4 83.0 86.6 90.3
191 65.7 80.3 83.9 87.6 91.2
192 66.4 81.1 84.8 88.5 92.2
193 67.0 81.9 85.7 89.4 93.1
194 67.7 82.8 86.6 90.3 94.1
195 68.4 83.7 87.5 91.3 95.1
196 69.1 84.5 88.4 92.2 96.0
197 69.9 85.4 89.3 93.1 97.0
198 70.6 86.2 90.2 94.1 98.0
199 71.3 87.1 91.1 95.0 99.0
200 72.0 88.0 92.0 96.0 100.0
201 72.7 88.9 92.9 97.0 101.0
202 73.4 89.8 93.8 97.9 102.0
203 74.2 90.7 94.8 98.9 103.0
204 74.9 91.6 95.7 99.9 104.0
205 75.6 92.5 96.7 100.9 105.1
206 76.4 93.4 97.6 101.8 106.1
207 77.1 94.3 98.6 102.8 107.1
208 77.9 95.2 99.5 103.8 108.2
209 78.6 96.1 100.5 104.8 109.2
210 79.4 97.0 101.4 105.8 110.3
(a) Weight for height charts given above is for all categories of personnel. This chart is prepared based on the
BMI. The chart specifies the minimum acceptable weight that candidates of a particular height must have.
Weights below the minimum specified will no t be acceptable in any case. The maximum acceptable
weight of height has been specified in age wise categories. Weights higher than the acceptable limit will
be acceptable only in the case of candidates with documented evidence of body building, wrestling, and
boxing at the National level. In such cases the following criteria will have to be met.
(i) Body Mass Index should be below 25.
(ii) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for males and 0.8 for females.
(iii) Waist Circumference should be less than 90 cm for males and 80 cm for females.
(iv) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal limits.
Note: The height and weight for candidates below 17 years will be followed as per guidelines by ‗Indian
Academy of Paediatrics growth charts for height, weight and BMI for 05 Years to 16 Years old children‘
amended from time to time.
(b) The minimum height required for male/female candidates for entry into the Armed Forces is
157 cm or as decided by the respective recruiting agency. Gorkhas and candidates belongin g to Hills of
North Eastern region of India. Garhwal and Kumaon, will be accepted with a minimum height of 152 cm.
Note : An allowance for growth of 02 cm will be made for both male and female candidates below 18 yrs of
age at the time of examination. The minimum height requirement for the Flying Branch is 163 cm.
Anthropometric standards like sitting height, leg length and thigh length are also required by the Flying
Branch.
8. Following investigations will be carried out for all officer entries and for pre-commission training academies.
However examining medical officer/ medical board may ask for any other investigation deemed fit.
(a) Complete haemogram
(b) Urine RE
(c) Chest X -ray
(d) USG abdomen and Pelvis.
9. Certain standards vary depending on age and type entry vi z stds for vision as follows: -
Parameter Standards : 10+2 entries,
NDA(Army), TES and
equivalent Graduate & equivalent
entries: CDSE, IMA, OTA,
UES, NCC,TGC &
equivalent Post graduate & equivalent
entries: JAG, AEC , APS,
RVC,TA, AMC, ADC, SL &
equiva lent
Uncorrected
vision(max
allowed) 6/36 & 6/36 6/60 &6/60 3/60 & 3/60
BCVA Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6 Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6 Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6
Myopia < -2.5 D Sph
( including max astigmatism ≤
+/- 2.0 D Cyl) < -3.50 D Sph
( including max
astigmatism ≤ +/ - 2.0 D
Cyl) < -5.50 D Sph
(including max astigmatism ≤
+/- 2.0 D Cyl)
Hypermetropia <+2.5 D Sph,
( including max astigmatism ≤
+/- 2.0 D Cyl) <+3.50 DSph
( including max
astigmatism ≤ +/ - 2.0 D
Cyl) <+3.50 D Sph
(including m ax astigmatism ≤
+/- 2.0 D Cyl)
Lasik/equivalent
surgery Not permitted Permitted * Permit ted*
Colour perception CP-II CP-II CP-II
*LASIK or Equivalent kerato -refractive procedure
(a) Any candidate who has undergone any kerato -refractive procedure will have a certificate/operative
notes from the medical centre where he/she has undergone the procedure, specifying the date and type of
surgery.
Note: Absence of such a certificate will necessitate the Ophthalmologist to make a decision to reject the
candidate with specific endorsement of ―Unfit due to undocumented Visual Acuity corrective procedure‖.
(b) In order to be made FIT, the following criteria will have to be met:
(i) Age more than 20 yrs at the time of surgery
(ii) Minimum 12 months post LASIK
(iii) Central corneal thickness equ al to or more than 450 µ
(iv) Axial length by IOL Master equal to or less than 26 mm
(v) Residual refraction of less than or equal to +/ - 1.0 D incl cylinder, (provided acceptable in
the category applied for).
(vi) Normal healthy retina.
(vii) Corneal topo graphy and ectasia markers can also be included as addl criteria.
Candidates who have undergone radial keratotomy are permanently unfit
10. Form to be used for med board proceedings is AFMSF -2A.
11. Procedure of Medical Examination Board: Medical Examinat ion Board for selection for officers and pre -
commissioning training academies are convened at designated Armed Forces Medical Services Hospitals near Service
Selection Boards (SSB). These Medical Boards are termed as ‗Special Medical Board‘ (SMB). Candida tes who clear
SSB interview are referred to Armed Forces Medical Services Hospital with identification documents. Staff Surgeon
of Hospital will identify the candidate, guide the candidate to fill the relevant portions of the AFMSF -2, organize
investigatio ns and examination by Medical, Surgical, Eye, ENT, Dental specialists. Female candidates are examined
by Gynaecology Specialist also. After examination by Specialists, the candidate is brought before Medical Board.
Medical Board once satisfied with finding s of Specialists will declare fitness of candidate. If any candidate is
declared ‗Unfit‘ by SMB, such candidates can request for ‗Appeal Medical Board‘ (AMB). Detailed procedure for
AMB will be provided by President SMB.
12. Miscellaneous aspects:
(a) Clinical methods of examinations are laid down by O/O DGAFMS.
(b) Female candidates will be examined by female medical officers and specialists. In case of non
availability they will be examined by Medical Officer in the presence of female attendant.
(c) Fitness following surgery: Candidates may be declared fit after surgery. However, there should not be any
complication; scar should be healthy, well healed and attained required tensile strength. The candidate shall be
considered fit after 01 year of ope n/laproscopic surgeries for hernia and twelve weeks of laparoscopic abdominal
surgery for cholesystectomy. For any other surgery, fitness shall be considered only after 12 weeks of the laparoscopic
surgery and 12 months after an open surgery. Candidate sha ll be unfit for any surgeries for injuries, ligament tear, and
meniscus tear of any joint, irrespective of duration of surgery.
Annexure B
MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION FOR
OFFICER ENTRIES INTO NAVY
PROCEDURE ON CONDUCT OF MEDICAL BOARDS
1. A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board (SSB) will undergo a medical examination
(Special Medical Board) by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only those candidates, who are declared fit by the
Medical Board, will be admitted to the Academy. However, the President of the Medical Board will intimate the
candidates declared unfit of their results and the procedure for an Appeal Medical Board (AMB)to be completed in a
Command Hospital or equivalent within 42 days of Special Medical Board.
2. Candidates who are declared unfit by the Appeal Medical Board (AMB) may request for Review Medical
board (RMB) within one day of completion of Appeal Medical Board. The President AMB will intimate about the
procedure of challenging the findings o f AMB. The candidates will also be intimated that sanction for holding of
Review Medical Board (RMB) will be granted at the discretion of DGAFMS based on the merit of the case and that
RMB is not a matter of right. The candidate should address the request for RMB if he/ she so desires to DMPR,
Integrated Headquarters Ministry of Defence (Navy), Sena Bhawan, Rajaji Marg, New Delhi – 110011 and a copy of
the same is handed over to the President of AMB. O/o DGAFMS will inform the date and place (Delhi and Pune only)
where the candidate will appear for a RMB.
3. The following investigations will be carried out mandatorily during Special Medical Board. However,
Medical Officer / Medical Board examining a candidate may ask for any other investigation as required or indicated : -
(a) Complete Haemogram
(b) Urine RE/ME
(c) X Ray chest PA view
(d) USG abdomen & pelvis
(e) Liver Function Tests
(f) Renal Function Tests
(g) X Ray Lumbosacral spine, Anterior -Posterior and Lateral views
(h) Electrocardiogram(ECG)
PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR OFFICERS (MALE/ FEMALE) ON ENTRY
4. The candidate must be physically fit according to the prescribed physical standards.
(a) The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/ disability
which is likely to int erfere with the efficient performance of dutiesboth ashore and afloat, under peace as well
as war conditions in any part of the world.
(b) There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or underweight. The candidate
should not be overweig ht or obese.
5. Weight
Height -Weight Chart : Navy
Height
in Mtrs Up to 17 yrs 17 yrs + 1 day to 18 yrs 18 yrs + 1 day to 20
yrs 20 yrs + 1 day to 30 yrs Above 30 yrs
Minimu
m Weight
in Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg Minimum
Weight in
Kg Maximum
Weight in
Kg
1.47 37 45 40 45 40 48 40 50 40 52
1.48 37 46 41 46 41 48 41 50 41 53
1.49 38 47 41 47 41 49 41 51 41 53
1.5 38 47 42 47 42 50 42 52 42 54
1.51 39 48 42 48 42 50 42 52 42 55
1.52 39 49 43 49 43 51 43 53 43 55
1.53 40 49 43 49 43 51 43 54 43 56
1.54 40 50 44 50 44 52 44 55 44 57
1.55 41 50 44 50 44 53 44 55 44 58
1.56 41 51 45 51 45 54 45 56 45 58
1.57 42 52 46 52 46 54 46 57 46 59
1.58 42 52 46 52 46 55 46 57 46 60
1.59 43 53 47 53 47 56 47 58 47 61
1.6 44 54 47 54 47 56 47 59 47 61
1.61 44 54 48 54 48 57 48 60 48 62
1.62 45 55 49 55 49 58 49 60 49 63
1.63 45 56 49 56 49 58 49 61 49 64
1.64 46 56 50 56 50 59 50 62 50 65
1.65 46 57 50 57 50 60 50 63 50 65
1.66 47 58 51 58 51 61 51 63 51 66
1.67 47 59 52 59 52 61 52 64 52 67
1.68 48 59 52 59 52 62 52 65 52 68
1.69 49 60 53 60 53 63 53 66 53 69
1.7 49 61 53 61 53 64 53 66 53 69
1.71 50 61 54 61 54 64 54 67 54 70
1.72 50 62 55 62 55 65 55 68 55 71
1.73 51 63 55 63 55 66 55 69 55 72
1.74 51 64 56 64 56 67 56 70 56 73
1.75 52 64 57 64 57 67 57 70 57 74
1.76 53 65 57 65 57 68 57 71 57 74
1.77 53 66 58 66 58 69 58 72 58 75
1.78 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 73 59 76
1.79 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 74 59 77
1.8 55 68 60 68 60 71 60 75 60 78
1.81 56 69 61 69 61 72 61 75 61 79
1.82 56 70 61 70 61 73 61 76 61 79
1.83 57 70 62 70 62 74 62 77 62 80
1.84 58 71 63 71 63 74 63 78 63 81
1.85 58 72 63 72 63 75 63 79 63 82
1.86 59 73 64 73 64 76 64 80 64 83
1.87 59 73 65 73 65 77 65 80 65 84
1.88 60 74 65 74 65 78 65 81 65 85
1.89 61 75 66 75 66 79 66 82 66 86
1.9 61 76 67 76 67 79 67 83 67 87
1.91 62 77 67 77 67 80 67 84 67 88
1.92 63 77 68 77 68 81 68 85 68 88
1.93 63 78 69 78 69 82 69 86 69 89
1.94 64 79 70 79 70 83 70 87 70 90
1.95 65 80 70 80 70 84 70 87 70 91
Notes for Male Candidates: -
(a) The minimum and maximum weight for height will be standard for all categories of personnel.
Candidates with weight below the minimum specified will not be accepted.
(b) Male candidates with weight higher than specified will be acceptable only in exceptional
circumstances in case of candidates with documented evidence of body building, wrestling, boxing or
muscular build. In such cases , the following criteria are to be met: -
(i) Body Mass Index should not be more than 25.
(ii) Waist : Hip Ratio less than 0.9.
(iii) All biochemical parameters such as blood sugar Fasting and Post Prandial, blood urea,
creatinine, cholesterol, HbA1C%, etc are withi n normal limits.
(c) The fitness can only be given by a Medical Specialist.
(d) The minimum acceptable height is 157 cms. However, relaxation in height is permissible to candidates
holding domicile of areas as mentioned below and talented sports male cand idates:
Sl No. Category Minimum Height for Male
Candidates
(i) Tribals from Ladhakh Region 155 Cm
(ii) Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshdweep and Minicoy
Islands 155 Cm
(iii) Gorkhas, Nepali, Assamese, Garhwali, Kumaoni
and Uttarakhand 152 Cm
(iv) Bhutan, S ikkim & North East Region 152 Cm
(v) Extra talented sports candidates 155 Cm
Notes for Female Candidates: -
(a) The minimum and maximum weight for height will be standard for all categories of personnel. Candidates with
weight below the minimum specified wil l not be accepted.
(b) Candidates with weight higher than specified will be acceptable only in exceptional circumstances in case of
candidates with documented evidence of body building, Wrestling, boxing or muscular build. In such cases, the
following criteria are to be met :
(i) Body Mass Index should not be more than 25.
(ii) Waist : Hip Ratio less than 0.8 for female.
(iii) All biochemical parameters such as blood sugar Fasting and Post Prandial, blood urea, creatinine,
cholesterol, HbA1C%, etc are within no rmal limits.
(c) The fitness can only be given by a Medical Specialist.
(d) The minimum acceptable height for female Candidates is 152 cms. However, relaxation in height is permissible to
candidates holding domicile of areas as mentioned below:
Srl No. Category Minimum Height for
Female Candidates
(i) Tribals from Ladhakh Region 150 Cm
(ii) Aandaman& Nicobar, Lakshdweep and Minicoy Islands 150 Cm
(iii) Gorkhas, Nepali, Assamese, Garhwali, Kumaoni and Uttarakhand 147 Cm
(iv) Bhutan, Sikkim &North East Regi on 147 Cm
(e) The above relaxation in height will not be applicable to candidates seeking entry as officers into the Navy in Pilot/
Observer specialisations of the Executive branch.
6. During the medical examination of candidates, the following principal po ints will be ensured: -
(a) The candidate is sufficiently intelligent, although the responsibility on this point rests with the
Enrolling Officer. The Medical Officer will bring to the Enrolling Officer‘s notice any deficiency
he/she may observe during the examination.
(b) The hearing is good and that there is no sign of any disease of ear, nose or throat.
(c) Vision in either eye is up to the required standard. His/ her eyes are bright, clear and with no obvious
squint or abnormality. Movements of eye ball s should be full and free in all directions.
(d) Speech is without impediment.
(e) There is no glandular swelling.
(f) Chest is well formed and that his/her heart and lungs are sound.
(g) Limbs of the candidates are well formed and fully developed.
(h) There is no evidence of hernia of any degree or form.
(j) There is free and perfect action of all the joints.
(k) Feet and toes are well formed.
(l) Absence of any congenital malformation or defects.
(m) He/she does not bear traces of previous acute or chroni c disease pointing to an impaired constitution.
(n) Presence of sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient mastication.
(p) Absence of any disease of the Genito -Urinary tract.
The candidates very often do not give family history of disease because of ignorance. At times deliberate
attempt is made for concealment of disease for fear of rejection. In all these cases Recruiting Medical Officer should
state in concerned Para of AFMSF -2A, if there is any relevant history of Fits, Leprosy, Epilepsy or Tube rculosis. It is,
however, essential to make a thorough clinical examination of candidates for any signs of organic disease/physical
deformity. Recruiting Medical Officer should either reject the candidate or endorse the disease in respective column,
if it is of acceptable nature.
7. Major defects for rejection are as under: -
(a) Weak constitution, imperfect development, congenital malformation, muscular wasting.
Note: - Muscular wasting is to be judged entirely by its effect on function.
(b) Malformation of the head including deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of the skull.
(c) Assessment of Scoliosis. Cobb‘s angle of 15 degrees at Lumber Spine and 20 degrees at Dorsal
Spine will be the cut -off limits for scoliosis. Scoliosis will be decl ared Unfit if deformity exists on
full flexion of the spine with restriction of range of movements or due to organic defect causing
structural abnormality.
(d) Skeletal deformity either hereditary or acquired and disease or impairment of function of bones or
joints.
Note: - Rudimentary cervical rib causing no signs or symptoms is acceptable.
(e) Asymmetry of torso or limbs, abnormality of locomotion including amputation.
(f) Deformity of feet and toes.
(i) Hyperextensible Finger Joints . All candidates shall be thoroughly examined for hyper -
extensible finger joints. Any extension of fingers bending backwards beyond 90 degrees shall be
considered hyper -extensible and considered unfit. Other joints like Knee, Elbow, Spine and Thumb
shall also be examined carefu lly for features of hyper laxity/ hypermobility. Although the individual
may not show features of hyper laxity in other joints, isolated presentation of hyper extensibility of
finger joints shall be considered unfit because of the various ailments that may manifest later if such
candidates are subjected to strenuous physical training as mentioned above.
(ii) Mallet Finger . Loss of extensor mechanism at the distal inter -phalangeal joint leads to
Mallet finger. Chronic mallet deformity can lead to secondary c hanges in the PIP and MCP joint
which can result in compromised hand function. Normal range of movement at DIP joints is 0 -80
degree and PIP joint is 0 -90 degrees in both flexion and extension. In Mallet finger, candidate is
unable to extend/ straighten di stal phalanx of fingers completely.
(aa) Candidates with mild condition i.e., less than 10 degrees of extension lag without
any evidence of trauma, pressure symptoms and any functional deficit should be declared
Fit.
(ab) Candidates with fixed deformity of fingers will be declared Unfit.
(iii) Polydactyly . Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post -op. Can be declared fit if there is
no bony abnormality (X -Ray), wound is well healed and scar is supple.
(iv) SimpleSyndactyly . Can be assessed for fitness 12 w eeks post op. Can be declared fit if
there is no bony abnormality (X -Ray), wound is well healed and scar is supple.
(v) Complex Syndactyly . Unfit
(vi) Polymazia . Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post -op.
(vii) Hyperostosis FrontalisInterna . Will be con sidered fit in the absence of any other
metabolic abnormality.
(g) Healed Fractures .
(i) All intra -articular fractures especially of major joints (Shoulder, elbow, wrist, hip, knee and
ankle) with or without surgery, with or without implant shall be consi dered unfit.
(ii) All extra -articular injuries with post -operative status with or without implant shall be
considered unfit.
(iii) All extra -articular injuries of long bones which have been managed conservatively shall be
thoroughly evaluated clinically fo r soft tissue involvement, crush component, alignment, mal -union/
non-union or any miscellaneous causes which can later on present with a disability on being
subjected to physical stress shall be considered unfit if found so. However, the fitness of a cand idate
in whom the fracture has consolidated well and remodelled after conservative treatment with no
evidence of mal -alignment, shortening, soft tissue involvement etc. shall be at the discretion of
Surgical Specialist or Medical Board.
(h) CubitusRecurvat um. >10 degrees is Unfit
(j) Cubitus Valgus .
(i) Measurement of Carrying Angle . The carrying angle at the elbow is assessed
conventionally with the elbow in full extension using a protractor goniometer to measure the axes
from the surface margin of the ar m and forearm. However, variations in the development of the soft
tissues in the arm and forearm generally lead to inconsistencies in the measured results. So far, there
is no uniform method to measure the carrying angle of the elbow. However, measuring th e carrying
angle of the elbow through identification of bony landmarks on the acromion, medial and lateral
epicondyles of the humerus, and the distal radial and ulnar styloid processes is recommended.
Carrying angle is measured by a manual goniometer with two drawing axes of the arm and forearm.
The axis of the arm is defined by the lateral border of the cranial surface of the acromion to the
midpoint of the lateral and medial epicondyles of the humerus. The axis of the forearm is defined by
the midpoint of the lateral and medial epicondyles of the humerus to the midpoint of the distal radial
and ulnar styloid processes.
(ii) Cubitus valgus should be primarily a clinical diagnosis. The suggested indications to
perform a radiographic evaluation include: -
(aa) History of trauma
(ab) Scar around elbow
(ac) Asymmetry of angles
(ad) Distal neurovascular deficit
(ae) Restricted range of motion
(af) If deemed necessary by Orthopaedic Surgeon
(k) Hyperextension at Elbow Joint . Individuals can have naturally hyperex tended elbow. This
condition is not a medical problem, but can be a cause of fracture or chronic pain especially considering the
stress and strains military population is involved in. Also, the inability to return the elbow to within 10
degrees of the neut ral position is impairment in the activities of daily living.
(i) Measurement modality. Measured using a Goniometer
(ii) Normal elbow extension is 0 degrees. Up to 10 degrees of hyperextension is within normal
limits if the patient has no history of trauma to the joint. Anyone with hyperextension more than 10
degree should be unfit.
8. Eye.
(a) Deformity or morbid condition of the eye or eyelids that is liable for aggravation or recurrence.
(b) Manifest squint of any degree.
(c) Active trachoma or its compl ication or sequelae.
(d) Visual acuity below prescribed standards.
Notes: -
1. Visual standards for NDA/ NA entry are as follows : -
Criteria NDA/ NA
Uncorrected Vision 6/12 6/12
Corrected Vision 6/6 6/6
Limits of Myopia -1.0 D Sph
Limits of Hypermetro pia +2.0 D Sph
Astigmatism (within limits of myopia and hypermetropia) + 1.0 D Cyl
Binocular Vision III
Colour Perception I
2. Kerato Refractive Surgery. Candidates who have undergone any Refractory Surgery (PRK/LASIK/SMILE)
can be considered fit in all branches (except submarine, diving and MARCO cadre) subject to the following
conditions: -
(a) Surgery should not have been carried out before 20 yrs of age.
(b) Uncomplicated surgery at least 12 months before examination (Certificate mentioning the typ e of
refractive surgery, date of surgery and pre -operative refractive error from concerned eye centre is to be
produced by the candidate at the time of recruitment medical examination).
(c) Post LASIK Standards . Candidate will be considered Fit if Axial Le ngth by IOL Master is equal to
or less than 26 mm and Central Corneal Thickness is equal to or more than 450 microns.
(d) Residual refraction less than or equal to +1.0 D Sph or Cyl, provided within the permissible limit for
the category applied for. Howev er, for Pilot and Observer entries, the residual refraction should be nil.
(e) Pre-operative refractive error not more than +/ - 6.0 D
(f) Normal retinal examination.
3. Kerato -Refractory Surgery (PRK, LASIK, SMILE) is not acceptable for special cadres such as submarine,
diving and MARCO. Candidates who have undergone Radial Keratotomy are permanently unfit for all
branches.
4. Ptosis . Candidate will be considered fit post -operative provided there is no recurrence one year after surgery,
visual axis is clea r with normal visual fields and upper eyelid is 02 mm below the superior limbus. Candidates,
who have not undergone surgery for the condition, would be considered fit if they meet any of the following
criteria: -
(a) Mild ptosis
(b) Clear visual axis
(c) Normal visual field
(d) No sign of aberrant degeneration/ head tilt
5. Exotropia . Unfit
6. Anisocoria . If size difference between the pupils is >01mm, candidate will be considered unfit.
7. HeterochromiaIridum . Unfit
8. Sphincter Tears . Can be considered fit is size difference between pupils is <01mm, pupillary reflexes are brisk
with no observed pathology in cornea, lens or retina.
9. Pseudophakia . Unfit
10. Lenticular Opacities . Any lenticular opacity causing visual deterioration, or is in the visual axis o r is present in
an area of 07 mm around the pupils, which may cause glare phenomenon, should be considered Unfit. The
propensity of the opacities not to increase in size or number should also be a consideration when deciding
fitness. Small stationery lenti cular opacities in the periphery like congenital blue dot cataract, not affecting the
visual axis/ visual field may be considered by specialist (Should be less than 10 in number and central area of 04
mm to be clear).
11. Optic Nerve Drusen . Unfit
12. High Cup Disc Ratio . Candidate will be considered fit if the ratio is <0.2 with normal visual fields with no
other evidence of glaucoma. Candidates with high cup disc ratio (>0.2)/ Abnormal RNFL study/ Visual Field
Defect detected by Visual Field Analyzer will be considered Unfit.
13. Keratoconus . Unfit
14. Lattice .
(a) The following lattice degenerations will render a candidate Unfit: -
(i) Single circumferential lattice extending more than two clock hours in either or both eyes.
(ii) Two circumferential latt ices each more than one clock hour in extent in either or both eyes.
(iii) Radial lattices.
(iv) Any lattice with atrophic hole/ flap tears (Unlasered).
(v) Lattice degenerations posterior to equator.
(b) Candidates with lattice degeneration will be consid ered Fit under the following conditions: -
(i) Single circumferential lattice without holes of less than two clock hours in either or both eyes.
(ii) Two circumferential lattices without holes each being less than one clock hour in extent in either or
both eyes.
(iii) Post Laser delimitation single circumferential lattice, without holes/ flap tear, less than two clock
hours extent in either or both eyes.
(iv) Post Laser delimitation two circumferential lattices, without holes/flap tear, each being less than one
clock hour extent in either or both eyes.
9. Ear, Nose and Throat .
(a) Ear. History or recurrent ear ache, tinnitus or vertigo, impairment of hearing, disease of the external
meatus including atresia, exostosis or neoplasm which prevent a thorough examinat ion of the drum, unhealed
perforation of the tympanic membrane, aural discharge or sign of acute or chronic suppurative otitis media,
evidence of radical or modified radical mastoid operation.
Notes: -
1. A candidate should be able to hear forced whisper at a distance of 610 cms with each ear separately
with back to the examiner.
2. Otitis Media . Current Otitis Media of any type will entail rejection. Evidence of healed chronic
otitis media in the form of tympanosclerosis/ scarred tympanic membrane affecting less than 50% of Pars
Tensa of tympanic membrane will be assessed by ENT Specialist and will be acceptable if Pure Tone
Audiometry (PTA) and Tympanometry are normal. Healed healthy scar (Dimeric Tympanic Membrane or
cartilage) of the Neo -Tympanic Membrane involving less than 50% of Pars Tensa due to Type 1
Tympanoplasty (tympanic membrane repair with or without cartilage)/ Myringoplasty (with or without intact
cortical mastoidectomy) for Chronic Otitis Media (mucosal type) and Myringotomy (for Otitis Media with
Effusion) may be accepted after minimum period of 1 year post surgery if PTA and tympanometry are
normal.
(i) The fwg conditions would render a candidate Unfit: -
(aa) Residual perforation
(ab) Residual hearing loss on Free Field Hearing and/or PTA
(ac) Any other type of tympanoplasty (other than Type 1 Tympanoplasty) or middle ear surgery
(including ossiculoplasty, stapedotomy, canal wall down mastoidectomy, atticotomy, attico -
antrostomyetc)
(ad) Any implanted hearing device (eg. cochlear implant, b one conduction implant, middle ear
implants etc)
(b) Bony Growth of External Auditory Canal . Any candidate with clinically evident bony growth of
external auditory canal like exostosis, osteoma, fibrous dysplasia etc. will be declared Unfit. Assessment of
operated cases will be done after minimum period of 4 weeks. Post -surgery histopathology report and HRCT
temporal bone will be mandatory. If the histo -pathological report is suggestive of a neoplasia or HRCT
temporal bone is suggestive of partial removal o r deep extension it would entail rejection.
(c) Nose. Disease of the bones or cartilages of the nose, marked nasal allergy, nasal polyps, atrophic
rhinitis, disease of the accessory sinuses and nasopharynx.
Note :- Septal Deformity. Nasal septal perforation can be anterior cartilaginous or posterior bony perforation.
Simple nasal deformity not causing disfigurement, minor septal deviation not interfering with nasal airway
and small traumatic septal perforation which are asymptomatic are acceptable. Any septa l perforation greater
than 01 cm in the greatest dimension is a ground for rejection. A septal perforation which is associated with
nasal deformity, nasal crusting, epistaxis and granulation irrespective of the size is a ground for rejection.
(i) Nasal Po lyposis . It is also known as Chronic Rhinosinusitis with polyposis (CRSwNP).
Nasal polyposis is mostly associated with allergy, asthma, sensitivity to NSAIDs and infection i.e.
bacterial and fungal. Most of these patients have high chances of recurrence an d require long term
management with nasal/ oral steroids and are unfit for extremes of climate and temperature
conditions. Any individual detected to have nasal polyposis on examination or with history of
having undergone surgery for nasal polyposis will b e rejected.
(c) Throat . Disease of throat palate, tongue, tonsils, gums and disease or injury affecting the normal
function of either mandibular joints.
Note: - Simple hypertrophy of the tonsils without associated history of attacks of tonsillitis is accep table.
(d) Disease of the larynx and impediment of speech. Voice should be normal. Candidates with
pronounced stammer will not be accepted.
10. Dental Condition . It should be ensured that a sufficient number of natural and sound teeth are present for
efficient mastication.
(a) A candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points to be acceptable in order to assess the dental
condition of an individual. Dental points less than 14 are a cause of rejection. The dental points are allotted as
under for teeth in g ood opposition with corresponding teeth in the other jaw: -
(i) Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, 1st Premolar, 2nd Premolar and under developed third
molar with 1 point each.
(ii) 1st molar and 2nd molar and fully developed 3rd molar with 2 points each.
(iii) When all 32 teeth are present, there will be a total count of 22 or 20 points according to
whether the third molars are well developed or not.
(b) The following teeth in good functional apposition must be present in each jaw: -
(i) Any 4 of the 6 anteriors.
(ii) Any 6 of the 10 posteriors.
All these teeth must be sound/ repairable.
(c) Candidates suffering from severe pyorrhea will be rejected. Where the state of pyorrhea is such that
in the opinion of the Dental Officer, it can be cured without extraction of teeth, the candidates may be
accepted. A note about the affected teeth is to be inserted by the Medical/ Dental Officer in the medical
documents.
(d) Artificial dentures are not to be included while counting the dental points.
11. Neck .
(a) Enlar ged glands, tubercular or due to other diseases in the neck or other parts of the body.
Note: - Scars of operations for the removal of tubercular glands are not a cause for rejection provided there
has been no active disease within the preceding five years and the chest is clinically and radiologically clear.
(b) Disease of the thyroid gland.
(c) Chest . The following are criteria for rejection: -
(aa) Deformity of chest, congenital or acquired.
(ab) Expansion less than 5 cms.
(ac) Significant bilateral/ unilater al Gynaecomastia in males. Can be evaluated for fitness 12
weeks post -op.
12. Skin and Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI) .
(a) Skin disease unless temporary or trivial.
(b) Scars which by their extent or position cause or are likely to cause disability/ or marke d disfigurement.
(c) Hyperhydrosis - Palmar, plantar or axillary.
(d) Congenital, active or latent sexually transmitted diseases.
Note: - In cases with old healed scar over the groin or penis/ vagina suggestive of past STI, blood will be
tested for STI (Including HIV) to exclude latent Sexually Transmitted Disease.
13. Respiratory System .
(a) History of chronic cough or Bronchial Asthma.
(b) Evidence of Pulmonary Tuberculosis.
(b) Evidence of diseases of bronchi, lungs or pleurae detected on radiological examination of t he chest will
disqualify the candidate.
Note: - An X -Ray examination of the chest will be carried out under following circumstances: -
(i) On entry into the service as a cadet or direct entry.
(ii) At the time of grant of permanent commission in case of sho rt service commissioned
officer.
14. Cardio -Vascular System .
(a) Functional or organic disease of the heart or blood vessels, presence of murmurs or clicks on
auscultation.
(b) Tachycardia (Pulse Rate persistently over 96/min at rest), bradycardia (Pulse R ate persistently
below 40/ min at rest), any abnormality of peripheral pulses.
(c) Blood Pressure . Candidate with Blood Pressure consistently greater than 140/90mm Hg will be
rejected. All such candidates shall undergo a 24 hour Ambulatory Blood Pressure M onitoring (24h ABPM) to
differentiate between white coat hypertension and persistent hypertension. Wherever feasible, candidates will
be evaluated by a Cardiologist at AMB. Those with normal 24h ABPM and without any target organ damage
can be considered fi t after evaluation by a cardiologist.
(c) Electrocardiogram (ECG) . Any ECG abnormality detected at SMB will be a ground for rejection. Such
candidates will be evaluated by a cardiologist during AMB with echocardiography for structural abnormality
and stress te st if deemed necessary. Benign ECG abnormalities like incomplete RBBB, T wave inversion in
inferior leads, T inversion in V1 -V3 (persistent juvenile pattern), LVH by voltage criteria (due to thin chest
wall) may exist without any structural heart disease. Echocardiography should be performed in all such cases
to rule out an underlying structural heart disease and opinion of Senior Adviser (Medicine)/ Cardiologist
should be obtained. If echocardiography and stress tests (if indicated) are normal, the individ ual can be
considered fit.
15. Abdomen .
(a) Evidence of any disease of the gastro -intestinal tract, enlargement of liver, gall bladder or spleen,
tenderness on abdominal palpation, evidence/ history of peptic ulcer or previous history of extensive
abdomina l surgery. All officer entry candidates are to be subjected to the Ultra Sound Examination of the
abdominal and pelvic organs for detecting any abnormalities of the internal organs.
(b) Post-op Assessment . Post -op duration for assessment of fitness in comm on conditions: -
(i) Hernia . Those who have been operated for hernia may be declared fit provided: -
(aa) 24 weeks have elapsed since the operation for Anterior Abdominal Wall hernia.
Documentary proof to this effect is to be produced by the candidate.
(ab) General tone of the abdominal musculature is good.
(ac) There has been no recurrence of hernia or any complication connected with the
operation.
(ii) Other Conditions . Those who have been operated for below mentioned conditions may be
declared fit provide d:-
(aa) Open Cholecystectomy. 24 weeks (In the absence of Incisional Hernia)
(ab) Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. 08 weeks (Normal LFT, Normal histopathology)
(ac) Appendicectomy. 04 weeks (with normal histo -pathological findings)
(ad) Pilonidal Sinus. 1 2 weeks
(ae) Fistula -in-Ano, Anal Fissure and Grade IV Hemorrhoids.12 weeks post -op with
satisfactory treatment and recovery.
(af) Hydrocele and Varicocele. 08 weeks post -op with satisfactory treatment and
recovery.
(d) Agenesis of Gall Bladder . Will be co nsidered fit in the absence of any other abnormality of the
biliary tract. MRCP will be done for all such cases.
16. Genito -Urinary System .
(a) Any evidence of disease of genital organs.
(b) Bilateral undescended testis, unilateral undescended testis retained in the inguinal canal or at the external
abdominal ring unless corrected by operation.
Note: - Absence of one testis is not a cause for rejection unless the testis has been removed on account of
disease or its absence has affected the physical or mental healt h of the candidate.
(c) Disease or malformation of the kidneys or urethra.
(d) Incontinence of urine and nocturnal enuresis.
(e) Any abnormality on examination of urine including albuminuria or glycosuria.
(f) The following are criteria for rejection: -
(i) Renal Calculi. Irrespective of size, numbers, obstructive or non -obstructive. History of
renal calculi (History or radiological evidence) will render a candidate Unfit.
(ii) Calyecdasis
(iii) Bladder Diverticulum
(iv) Simple Renal Cyst. > 1.5 Cm
17. Central Nervous System .
(a) Organic disease of Central Nervous System.
(b) Tremors.
(c) Candidates with history of fits and recurrent attacks of headache/ migraine will not be accepted.
18. Psychiatric Disorders . History or evidence of mental disease or nervous instability in the candidate or his
family.
19. Lab Investigation (Hematology) .
(a) Polycythemia . Hemoglobin more than 16.5g/dL in males and more than 16g/dL in females will be
considered as Polycythemia and deemed Unfit.
(b) Monocytosis . Absolute monocyte counts greate r than 1000/cu mm or more than or equal to 10% of
total WBC counts is to be deemed Unfit.
(c) Eosinophilia . Absolute eosinophil counts greater than or equal to 500/ cu mm is deemed Unfit.
20. Women Candidates . They should not be pregnant and should also b e free from gynaecological
disorders such as primary or secondary Amenorrhea/ Dysmenorhoea/ Menorrhagia etc. All women candidates are to
be subjected to Ultra Sound Examination of the abdominal and pelvic organs for detecting any abnormalities of the
internal organs.
21. Acceptable Defects on Entry . Candidates for the Navy with the following minor defects may be
accepted. These defects are however to be noted in the medical forms on entry.
(a) Knock Knees with a separation of less than 5 cm at the internal malleoli.
(b) Mild curvature of legs not affecting walking or running. Intercondylar distance should not be over 7
cm.
(c) Mild stammering not affecting expression.
(d) Mild degree of varicocele.
(e) Mild degree of varicose veins.
Note: - Remedial operat ions wherever required are to be performed prior to entry. No guarantee is given about
ultimate acceptance and it should be clearly understood by a candidate that the decision whether an operation
is desirable or necessary is one to be made by their privat e medical advisor. The Government will accept no
liability regarding the result of operation or any expenses incurred.
(f) Any other slight defect which produces no functional disability and which in the opinion of medical officer/
medical board will not i nterfere with the individual‘s efficiency as an officer or sailor.
Annexure C
MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR NDA ( AIR FORCE)
(FLYING & GROUND DUTY BRANCHES)
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. In this section, standardized guidelines for the physical assessment of candidate s for commissioning through
NDA into flying and ground duty branches in the IAF are elaborated. The purpose of these guidelines is to lay down
uniform physical standards and to ensure that the candidates are free of health conditions that may hamper or lim it
their performance in the respective branch. The guidelines enumerated in this section are meant to be applied in
conjunction with the standard methods of clinical examination.
2. All candidates during their induction should meet the basic physical fitn ess standards which will enable them
to proficiently undergo the training and the subsequent service in varied climatic and work environments. A candidate
will not be assessed physically fit unless the complete examination shows that he/ she is physically and mentally
capable of withstanding the severe physical and mental strain for prolonged periods. The requirements of medical
fitness are essentially the same for all branches, except for aircrew in whom the parameters for visual acuity,
anthropometry and certain other physical standards are more stringent.
3. The results of initial examination are recorded on AFMSF – 2. The complete medical examination consists
of:-
(a) A questionnaire, which is to be carefully and truthfully completed by the candidate a nd
countersigned by the examining medical officer. The importance of all aspects of the questionnaire, including
the legal aspect, should be emphasised to all the candidates. Any subsequent detection of disability or
revelation of a significant past histor y, not declared earlier, may lead to disqualification at any stage prior to
commissioning. USG abdomen would be conducted for all candidates and Candidates during medical
examination prior to commissioning.
(b) A complete medical and surgical examination i ncluding dental examination and gynecological
examination in female.
(c) An ophthalmic examination.
(d) An examination of the ear, nose and throat.
4. The medical standards spelt out pertain to initial entry medical standards. Continuation of medical fitn ess
during training will be assessed during the periodic medical examinations held at NDA/ AFA prior to commissioning.
GENERAL PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT
1. Every candidate, to be fit for the Air Force, must conform to the minimum standards laid down in the
succeeding paragraphs. The physical parameters should fall within the acceptable ranges and should be proportionate.
2. The residual effects of old fractures/ injuries are to be assessed for any functional limitation. If there is no
effect on function, the can didate can be assessed fit. Following categories should be meticulously assessed:
(a) Spine injuries . Cases of old fractures of spine are unfit. Any residual deformity of spine or
compression of a vertebra will be cause for rejection.
(b) Nerve injuries . Injuries involving the trunks of the larger nerves, resulting in loss of function, or
neuroma formation, which causes pain significant tingling, indicate unsuitability for employment in flying
duties.
(c) Keloids . The presence of large or multiple keloids will be a cause for rejection.
3. (a) Surgical Scars. Minor well -healed scars for e.g. as resulting from any superficial surgery do not, per
se, indicate unsuitability for employment. Extensive scarring of a limb or torso that may cause functional
limitat ion or unsightly appearance should be considered unfit.
(b) Birth Marks . Abnormal pigmentation in the form of hypo or hyper -pigmentation is not acceptable.
Localized, congenital mole/ naevus, however, is acceptable provided its size is <10 cm. Congenital multiple
naevi or vascular tumours that interfere with function or are exposed to constant irritation are not acceptable.
(c) Subcutaneous Swellings . Lipoma will be considered fit unless the lipoma is causing significant
disfigurement/ functional impairme nt due to the size/ location. Neurofibroma, if single will be considered fit.
Multiple neurofibromas associated with significant Café -au-lait spots (more than 1.5 cm size or more than
one in number) will be considered unfit.
4. Cervical Rib . Cervical rib w ithout any neuro -vascular compromise will be accepted. Meticulous clinical
examination to rule out neuro -vascular compromise should be performed in such cases. This should be documented in
the Medical Board proceedings.
5. Cranio -facial Deformities . Asymme try of the face and head or uncorrected deformities of skull, face or
mandible which will interfere with proper fitting of oxygen mask, helmet or military headgear will be considered
unfit. Major deformities even after corrective surgery will be considered unfit.
6. History relating to Operations . A candidate who has undergone an abdominal operation involving
extensive surgical intervention or partial/ total excision of any organ is, as a rule, unfit for service. Operation
involving the cranial vault with any residual bony defect will be unfit. Major thoracic operations will make the
candidate unfit.
MEASUREMENTS AND PHYSIQUE
7. Chest Shape and Circumference . The shape of the chest is as important as its actual measurement. The
chest should be well propor tioned and well developed. Any chest deformity likely to interfere with physical exertion
during training and performance of military duties or adversely impact military bearing or are associated with any
cardio -pulmonary or musculoskeletal anomaly are to be considered unfit. Minimum recommended chest
circumference for Candidates is 77 cm. The chest expansion should be at least 05 cm for all candidates. For the
purpose of documentation, any decimal fraction lower than 0.5 cm will be ignored, 0.5 cm will be recorded as such
and 0.6 cm and above will be recorded as 1 cm.
Height, Sitting Height, Leg Length and Thigh Length for Male Candidates .
8. Minimum height for Flying Branch will be 162.5 cm. Acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length
and sittin g height for such aircrew will be as under: -
(a) Sitting height Minimum 81.5 cm
Maximum 96.0 cm
(b) Leg Length Minimum 99.0 cm
Maximum 120.0 cm
(c) Thigh Length Maximum 64.0 cm
The minimum height for entry into Ground Duty branches will be 157.5 cm. For Gorkhas and individual
belonging to North -Eastern regions of India and hilly regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum acceptable height will be
5 cm less (152.5 cm). In case of candidates from Lakshadweep the minimum acceptable height can be redu ced by 2
cm (155.5 cm).
9. Body Weight Parameters
(a) For NDA candidates, at entry, the weight chart placed at Appendix ‘A’ to this notification will be
applicable. The maximum permissible variation from the ideal body weight is 10%. The weight will be
rounded off to the nearest 0.5 kg. If a candidate is underweight by more than 10% below the ideal, a detailed
history and careful examination to rule out possible cause like tuberculosis, hyperthyroidism, diabetes etc.
will be carried out. If no cause is det ected the candidate will be declared fit. If any cause is detected the
fitness of the candidate will be decided accordingly.
10. Weights higher than the prescribed limit will be acceptable only in exceptional circumstances in case of those
candidates wher e there is documented evidence of bodybuilding, wrestling and boxing. However, in such cases, the
following criteria will have to be met:
(a) BMI should be below 27.
(b) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for males and 0.8 for females.
(c) Waist circumfer ence should be less than 94 cm for males and 89 cm for females.
(d) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal limits.
Height and Weight Standards for Female Candidates joining NDA (Air Force).
11. Minimum height for Flying Branch will b e 162.5 cm. Acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length
and sitting height for such aircrew will be as under: -
(a) Sitting height Minimum 81.5 cm
Maximum 96.0 cm
(b) Leg Length Minimum 99.0 cm
Maximum 120.0 cm
(c) Thigh Length Maximum 64.0 cm
The minimum height for entry into Ground Duty branches will be 152 cm. For Gorkhas and individual
belonging to North -Eastern regions of India and hilly regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum acceptable height will be
5 cm less (147 cm). In case of candida tes from Lakshadweep the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cm
(150 cm).
Body Weight Parameters
12. For female NDA candidates, at entry, the weight chart placed at Appendix ‗B‘ will be applicable. The
maximum permissible variation from the idea l body weight is 10%. The weight will be rounded off to the nearest 0.5
kg. If a candidate is under -weight by more than 10% below the ideal, a detailed history and careful examination to rule
out possible cause like tuberculosis, hyperthyroidism, diabetes etc. will be carried out. If no cause is detected the
candidate will be declared fit. If any cause is detected the fitness of the candidate will be decided accordingly.
13. Weights higher than the prescribed limit will be acceptable only in exceptional cir cumstances in case of those
candidates where there is documented evidence of bodybuilding, wrestling and boxing. However, in such cases, the
following criteria will have to be met:
(a) BMI should be below 27.
(b) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for mal es and 0.8 for females.
(c) Waist circumference should be less than 94 cm for males and 89 cm for females.
(d) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal limits
Appendix ‘A’
[Refer Para 9 above]
Male Ideal Nude Weights for Different Age Groups and Heights for NDA (Flying
& Ground Duty) Candidates on Entry
(10% variation on higher side of average acceptable)
Height
(in cm) Age Range (in Years) /
Weight (in Kgs)
15-16 16-17 17-18 18-19
152 41 42.5 44 45
155 42 43.5 45.3 47
157 43 45 47 48
160 45 46.5 48 49
162 46 48 50 51
165 48 50 52 53
167 49 51 53 54
170 51 52.5 55 56
173 52.5 54.5 57 58
175 54.5 56 59 60
178 56 58 61 62
180 58.5 60 63 64.5
183 61 62.5 65 66.5
Appendix ‘B’
[Refer Para 12 above]
Female Ideal Nude Weights for Different Age Groups and Heights for NDA (Flying & Ground Duty)
Candidates on Entry
(10% variation on higher side of average acceptable)
Height
(in cm) Age Range (in Years) /
Weight (in Kgs)
15-16 16-17 17-18 18-19
147 38 40 41 42
148 39 40 42 43
149 39 41 42 43
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
1. History of chest pain, breathlessness, palpitation, fainting attacks, giddiness, rheumatic fever, ankle swelling,
chorea, frequent sore throats and tonsillitis should be given due consideration in assessmen t of the cardiovascular
system.
2. Pulse . Rate, rhythm, volume, tension, regularity of the pulse and conditions of the arterial wall are assessed.
The normal pulse rate varies from 60 -100 bpm. The pulse should be counted for one full minute. The pulsations for
the radial and femoral arteries should always be compared and any difference, if any, should be recorded. Other
peripheral pulsations viz. carotid, popliteal, posterior tibial artery and dorsalis pedis artery on both sides should also be
palpated and any difference, if noted should be documented. Persistent sinus tachycardia (> 100 bpm) as well as
persistent sinus bradycardia (< 60 bpm) are unfit. In case bradycardia is considered to be physiological, the candidate
can be declared fit after evaluation by Medical Specialist/ Cardiologist.
3. Blood Pressure . Candidates are quite prone to develop White Coat Hypertension, which is a transient rise of
BP, due to stress of medical examination. Every effort must be made to eliminate the White Coat effect by r epeated
recordings under basal conditions with the candidate in a relaxed state. An individual with BP consistently greater
than or equal to 140/90 mm of Hg shall be rejected.
4. Cardiac Murmurs . Evidence of organic cardiovascular disease will be cause f or rejection. Diastolic
murmurs are invariably organic. Short systolic murmurs of ejection systolic nature and not associated with thrill and
which diminish on standing, especially if associated with a normal ECG and chest radiograph, are most often
functional. In case of any doubt the case should be referred to cardiologist for opinion.
5. ECG. Assessment of a properly recorded ECG (resting – 12 lead) should be carried out by a medical
specialist. Note will be taken of wave patterns, the amplitude, dur ation and time relationship. All ECG abnormalities
are unfit except incomplete RBBB which may exist without any structural heart disease. 2D ECHO should be
performed in cases with incomplete RBBB to rule out an underlying structural heart disease and opini on of Senior
Adviser (Medicine) or Cardiologist should be obtained.
6. Cardiac surgery and interventions . Candidates with history of cardiac surgery/ intervention in the past will
be considered unfit.
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. History of pulmonary tuberculosi s, pleurisy with effusion, frequent episodes of expectorant cough,
haemoptysis, frequent episodes of bronchitis, asthma, spontaneous pneumothorax and injuries to the chest should be
elicited. Spirometry/ Peak Expiratory Flow Rate may be done in cases suspe cted to have obstructive airway disease. In
case there is any suspicion of lung pathology, relevant investigations, including X Ray/ CT chest/ Immunological tests
etc may be carried out to decide fitness. Final fitness in doubtful cases will be decided onl y at appeal level after
opinion of Sr Adv (Med)/ Pulmonologist. 150 40 41 43 44
152 41 42.5 44 45
155 42 43.5 45.3 47
157 43 45 47 48
160 45 46.5 48 49
162 46 48 50 51
165 48 50 52 53
167 49 51 53 54
170 51 52.5 55 56
173 52.5 54.5 57 58
175 54.5 56 59 60
178 56 58 61 62
180 58.5 60 63 64.5
183 61 62.5 65 66.5
2. Pulmonary Tuberculosis . Any residual scarring in pulmonary parenchyma or pleura, as evidenced by a
demonstrable opacity on chest radiogram will be a ground for rejection. Old treated case s with no significant residual
abnormality can be accepted if the diagnosis and treatment was completed more than two years earlier. In these cases,
a CT scan chest and fibreoptic bronchoscopy with bronchial lavage can be done along with USG, ESR, PCR,
Imm unological tests and Mantoux test as decided by the Physician. If all the tests are normal the candidate may be
considered fit. However, in such cases fitness will only be decided at Appeal/ Review Medical Board.
3. Pleurisy with Effusion . Any evidence o f significant residual pleural thickening will be a cause for rejection.
4. Bronchitis . History of repeated attacks of cough/ wheezing/ bronchitis may be manifestations of chronic
bronchitis or other chronic pathology of the respiratory tract. Such case s will be assessed unfit. Pulmonary Function
Tests may be carried out, if available. In such cases, opinion of the Medical Specialist/ Chest Physician may be
obtained.
5. Bronchial Asthma . History of repeated attacks of bronchial asthma/ wheezing/ alle rgic rhinitis will be a
cause for rejection.
6. Radiographs of the Chest . Definite radiological evidence of disease of the lungs, mediastinum and pleurae
are criteria for declaring the candidate unfit. If required, investigations as outlined in para 2 ab ove can be carried out
under the advice of a pulmonologist.
7. Thoracic surgery. Candidate with history of any resection of the lung parenchyma will be considered unit.
Any other major surgery of the thorax will be considered on a case to case basis.
GAST ROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
1. The examiner should enquire whether the candidate has any past history of ulceration or infection of the
mouth, tongue, gums or throat. Record should be made of any major dental alteration. When discussing a candidate‗s
medical his tory the examiner must ask direct questions about any history of heartburn, history of recurrent dyspepsia,
peptic ulcer -type pain, chronic diarrhoea, jaundice or biliary colic, indigestion, constipation, bleeding PR and any
abdominal surgery.
2. Head to toe examination . Presence of any sign of liver cell failure (e.g. loss of hair, parotidomegaly, spider
naevi, gynaecomastia, testicular atrophy, flapping tremors etc) and any evidence of malabsorption (pallor, nail and
skin changes, angular cheilitis, ped al edema) will entail rejection. The condition of oral mucosa, gums and any
restriction of mouth opening should be noted.
3. Gastro -Duodenal Disabilities . Candidates who are suffering or have suffered, during the previous one year,
from symptoms suggestive of acid -peptic disease including proven peptic ulcers, are not to be accepted. Any past
surgical procedure involving partial or total loss of an organ (other than vestigial organs/ gall bladder) will entail
rejection.
4. Diseases of the Liver . If past hi story of jaundice is noted or any abnormality of the liver function is
suspected, full investigation is required for assessment. Candidates suffering from viral hepatitis or any other form of
jaundice will be rejected. Such candidates can be declared fit after a minimum period of 6 months has elapsed
provided there is full clinical recovery; HBV and HCV status are both negative and liver functions are within normal
limits. History of recurrent jaundice and hyperbilirubinemia of any nature is unfit.
5. Disease of the Spleen . Candidates who have undergone partial/ total splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of
the cause for operation.
6. Hernia . Hernial sites are to be examined for presence of inguinal, epigastric, umbilical and femoral
hernia.Any abdominal wal l hernia is unfit.A candidate with a well -healed surgical scar, after 06 months of either open
or laparoscopic repair, is considered fit provided there is no evidence of recurrence and the abdominal wall
musculature is good.
7. Abdominal Surgery
(a) A ca ndidate with well -healed scar after conventional abdominal surgery will be considered fit after
one year of successful surgery provided there is no potential for any recurrence of the underlying pathology,
no evidence of incisional hernia and the condition of the abdominal wall musculature is good.
(b) A candidate after laparoscopic cholecystectomy will be considered fit if 08 weeks have passed since
surgery provided they are free from signs and symptoms and their evaluation including LFT and USG
abdomen are normal and there is total absence of gall bladder with no intra -abdominal collection. Other
abdominal laparoscopic procedures can also be considered fit after 08 weeks of surgery provided the
individual is asymptomatic, recovery is complete and there i s no residual complication or evidence of
recurrence.
8. Anorectal Conditions. The examiner should do a digital rectal examination and rule out haemorrhoids,
sentinel piles, anal skin tags, fissures, sinuses, fistulae, prolapsed, rectal mass or polyps.
(a) Fit
(i) Only external skin tags.
(ii) After rectal surgery for polyps, haemorrhoids, fissure, fistula or ulcer, provided
there is no residual/ recurrent disease.
(b) Unfit
(i) Rectal prolapse even after surgical correction
(ii) Active anal fissure
(iii) Haemorrhoids (external or internal)
(iv) Anal Fistula
(v) Anal or rectal polyp
(vi) Anal stricture
(vii) Faecal incontinence
Ultrasonography of Abdomen
9. Liver
(a) Fit
(i) Normal echo -anatomy of the liver, CBD, IHBR, portal and hepatic veins wi th liver span
not exceeding 15 cm in the mid - clavicular line.
(ii) Solitary simple cyst (thin wall, anechoic) upto 2.5 cm diameter provided that the LFT is
normal and hydatid serology is negative.
(iii) Hepatic calcifications to be considered fit if sol itary and less than 1 cm with no evidence of
active disease like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, hydatid disease or liver abscess based on relevant
clinical examinations and appropriate investigations.
(b) Unfit
(i) Hepatomegaly more than 15 cm in mid -clavicul ar line.
(ii) Fatty liver – Grade 2 and 3, grade 1 in presence of abnormal LFT.
(iii) Solitary cyst > 2.5 cm.
(iv) Solitary cyst of any size with thick walls, septations, papillary projections, calcifications
and debris.
(v) Multiple hepatic calcifications or cluster > 1 cm.
(vi) Multiple hepatic cysts of any size.
(vii) Any haemangioma irrespective of the size and location.
(viii) Portal vein thrombosis.
(ix) Evidence of portal hypertension (PV >13 mm, collaterals, ascites).
10. Gall Bladder
(a) Fit
(i) Normal echo -anatomy of the gall bladder.
(ii) Post laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. Candidates having undergone laparoscopic
cholecystectomy may be considered fit if 08 weeks have passed since surgery and there is total
absence of gall bladder with no in tra-abdominal collection. Wound should have healed well without
incisional hernia.
(iii) Post Open Cholecystectomy. Candidates having undergone Open Cholecystectomy may be
considered fit if one year has passed since surgery, the scar is healthy with no inc isional hernia and
there is total absence of gall bladder with no intra -abdominal collection.
(b) Unfit
(i) Cholelithiasis or biliary sludge.
(ii) Choledocolithiasis.
(iii) Polyp of any size and number.
(iv) Choledochal cyst.
(v) Gall bladder mass.
(vi) Gall bladder wall thickness > 05 mm.
(vii) Septate gall bladder.
(viii) Persistently contracted gall bladder on repeat USG.
(ix) Incomplete Cholecystectomy.
11. Spleen
(a) Unfit
(i) Spleen more than 13 cm in longitudinal axis (or if clinically palpable) .
(ii) Any Space Occupying Lesion in the spleen.
(iii) Asplenia.
(iv) Candidates who have undergone partial/ total splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of the
cause of operation.
12. Pancreas
(a) Unfit
(i) Any structural abnormality.
(ii) Space Occup ying Lesion/ Mass lesion.
(iii) Features of chronic pancreatitis (calcification, ductal abnormality, atrophy).
13. Peritoneal Cavity
(a) Unfit
(i) Ascites.
(ii) Solitary mesenteric or retroperitoneal lymph node >1 cm. (Singleretroperitoneal LN <1 cm
and normal in architecture may be considered fit).
(iii) Two or more lymph nodes of any size
(iv) Any mass or cyst.
14. Major Abdominal Vasculature (Aorta/ IVC) . Any structural abnormality, focal ectasia, aneurysm and
calcification will be considered as unf it.
UROGENITAL SYSTEM
1. Enquiry should be made about any alteration in micturition or urinary stream e.g. dysuria, frequency, poor
stream etc. Recurrent attacks of cystitis; pyelonephritis and haematuria must be excluded from history. Detailed
enquiry mu st be made about any history of renal colic, attacks of acute nephritis, any operation on the renal tract
including loss of a kidney, passing of stones or urethral discharges. If there is any history of enuresis, past or present,
full details must be obtai ned. History of urethral discharge and Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) should be
elicited.
2. The external genitalia should be meticulously examined to rule out the presence of congenital anomalies e.g.
hypospadias, epispadias, ambiguous genitalia, und escended testis (UDT) or ectopic testis etc. Conditions like
hydrocele, varicocele, epididymal cyst, phimosis, urethral stricture, meatal stenosis etc should also be ruled out. The
criteria to be followed are as follows:
(a) Undescended testis (UDT)
(i) Unfit – Any abnormal position of testis (unilateral or bilateral) is unfit. Bilateral
orchidectomy due to any cause such as trauma, torsion or infection is unfit.
(ii) Fit - Operatively corrected UDT may be considered fit at least 04 weeks after surgery,
provided after surgical correction, the testis is normal in location and the wound has healed well.
Unilateral atrophic testis/ unilateral orchidectomy for benign cause may be considered fit, provided
other testis is normal in size, fixation and location.
(b) Varicocele
(i) Unfit – All grades of current varicocele.
(ii) Fit - Post-operative cases of varicocele with no residual varicocele and no post op
complication or testicular atrophy may be made fit after 04 weeks of surgery, for sub -inguinal
varicocoelec tomy.
(c) Hydrocele
(i) Unfit – Current hydrocele on any side.
(ii) Fit - Operated cases of hydrocele may be made fit after 04 weeks of surgery, if there are no
post-op complications and wound has healed well.
(d) Epididymal Cyst/ Mass, Spermatocele
(i) Unfit – Current presence of cyst / mass.
(ii) Fit – Post operative cases, where wound has healed well, there is no recurrence and only
when benign on histopathology report.
(e) Epididymitis/ Orchitis
(i) Unfit – Presence of current orchitis or epididymi tis/ tuberculosis.
(ii) Fit – After treatment, provided the condition has resolved completely.
(f) Epispadias/ Hypospadias
(i) Unfit – All are unfit, except glanular variety of hypospadias and epispadias, which is
acceptable.
(ii) Fit – Post-operative ca ses at least 08 weeks after successful surgery, provided recovery is
complete and there are no complications.
(g) Penile Amputation. Any amputation will make the candidate unfit.
(h) Phimosis
(i) Unfit – Current phimosis, if tight enough to interfere wit h local hygiene and voiding and/ or
associated with Balanitis Xerotica Obliterans.
(ii) Fit – Operated cases will be considered fit after 04 weeks of surgery, provided wound is fully
healed and no post -op complications are seen.
(j) Meatal Stenosis
(i) Unfit – Current disease, if small enough to interfere with voiding.
(ii) Fit – Mild disease not interfering with voiding and post -operative cases after a period of 04
weeks of surgery with adequately healed wound and no post op complications.
(k) Stricture U rethra, Urethral Fistula . Any history of / current cases or post -op cases are
unfit.
(l) Sex reassignment surgery/ Intersex condition. Unfit
(m) Nephrectomy. All cases, irrespective of the type of surgery (Simple/ radical/ donor/
partial/ RFA/ cryo -ablat ion) are unfit.
(n) Renal Transplant Recipients . Unfit
3. Urine Examination
(a) Proteinuria. Proteinuria will be a cause for rejection, unless it proves to be orthostatic.
(b) Glycosuria. When glycosuria is detected, a blood sugar examination (fasting a nd after 75 g glucose)
and glycosylated Hb is to be carried out, and fitness decided as per results. Renal glycosuria is not a cause
for rejection.
(c) Urinary Infections. When the candidate has history or evidence of urinary infection it will entail
full renal investigation. Persistent evidence of urinary infection will entail rejection.
(d) Haematuria. Candidates with history of haematuria will be subjected to full renal investigation.
4. Glomerulonephritis
(a) Acute. In this condition there is a high rate of recovery in the acute phase, particularly in childhood.
A candidate who has made a complete recovery and has no proteinuria may be assessed fit, after a minimum
period of one year after full recovery.
(b) Chronic. Candidate with chronic glomerul onephritis will be rejected.
5. Renal Colic and Renal Calculi . Complete renal and metabolic evaluation is required. Current or history of
urolithiasis, recurrent calculus, bilateral renal calculi, nephrocalcinosis are unfit. Even after surgery or any pro cedure
to treat urolithiasis the candidate remains unfit.
6. Sexual Transmitted Diseases and Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV). Seropositive HIV status
and/ or evidence of STD will entail rejection.
Ultrasonography of the Abdomen - Urogenital System
7. Kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder
(a) Unfit
(i) Congenital structural abnormalities of kidneys or urinary tract
(aa) Unilateral renal agenesis.
(ab) Unilateral or bilateral hypoplastic/ contracted kidney of size less than 08 cm.
(ac) Malrotation of kidney.
(ad) Horseshoe kidney.
(ae) Ptosed kidney.
(af) Crossed fused/ ectopic kidney.
(ii) Simple single renal cyst of more than 1.5 cm size in one kidney.
(iii) Complex cyst/ polycystic disease/ multiple or bilateral cysts.
(iv) Renal/ ureteric/ ves ical mass.
(v) Hydronephrosis or Hydroureteronephrosis.
(vi) Calculi - Renal/ Ureteric/ Vesical.
(b) Fit - Solitary, unilateral, simple renal cyst <1.5 cm provided the cyst is peripherally located, round/
oval, with thin smooth wall and no loculations, w ith posterior enhancement, no debris, no septa and no solid
component.
(c) During Appeal Medical Board/ Review Medical Board unfit candidates will be subjected to specific
investigations and detailed clinical examination. Candidates having isolated abno rmality of echo texture of
Kidney may be considered fit if Renal Function, DTPA scan and CECT kidney is normal.
8. Scrotum and Testis . The following cases will be made unfit:
(a) Bilateral atrophied testis.
(b) Varicocele (Unilateral or bilateral).
(c) Any abnormal location of testis (Unilateral or Bilateral).
(d) Hydrocele
(e) Epididymal lesions e.g. cyst.
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
1. History should be carefully elicited for any endocrine conditions particularly Diabetes Mellitus, disorders of
thyroid and adr enal glands, gonads etc. Any history suggestive of endocrine disorders will be a cause for rejection. In
case of any doubt, Medical Spl/ Endocrinologist opinion should be taken.
2. A thorough clinical examination to detect any obvious disease of the endocr ine system should be carried out.
Any clinical evidence of endocrine disease will be unfit.
3. All cases of thyroid swelling having abnormal iodine uptake and abnormal thyroid hormone levels will be
rejected. All cases of thyroid swelling are unfit.
4. Candidates detected to have diabetes mellitus will be rejected. A candidate with a family history of Diabetes
Mellitus will be subjected to blood sugar (Fasting and after Glucose load) and HbA1c evaluation, which will be
recorded.
DERMATOLOGICAL SYSTEM
1. Careful interrogation followed by examination of the candidate‘s skin is necessary to obtain a clear picture of
the nature and severity of any dermatological condition claimed or found. Borderline skin conditions should be
referred to a dermatologist. Can didates who give history of sexual exposure to a Commercial Sex Worker (CSW), or
have evidence of healed penile sore in the form of a scar should be declared permanently unfit, even in absence of an
overt STD, as these candidates are likely ‗repeaters‗ wit h similar indulgent promiscuous behavior.
2. Assessment of Diseases of the Skin. Acute non -exanthematous and non -communicable diseases, which
ordinarily run a temporary course, need not be a cause of rejection. Diseases of a trivial nature, and those, whi ch do
not interfere with general health or cause incapacity, do not entail rejection.
3. Certain skin conditions are apt to become active and incapacitating under tropical conditions. An individual
is unsuitable for service if he has a definite history or signs of chronic or recurrent skin disease. Some of such
conditions are described below: -
(a) Some amount of Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis is physiological, considering the situation that recruits
face during medical examination. However, candidates with sign ificant Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis should
be considered unfit.
(b) Mild (Grade I) acne consisting of few comedones or papules, localized only to the face may be
acceptable. However, moderate to severe degree of acne (nodulocystic type with or without keloi dal scarring)
or involving the back should be considered unfit.
(c) Any degree of palmoplantar keratoderma manifesting with hyperkeratotic and fissured skin over the
palms, soles and heels should be considered unfit.
(d) Ichthyosis involving the upper an d lower limbs, with evident dry, scaly, fissured skin should be
considered unfit. Mild xerosis (dry skin) could be considered fit.
(e) Candidates having any keloid should be considered unfit.
(f) Clinically evident onychomycosis of finger and toe -nails s hould be declared unfit, especially if
associated with nail dystrophy. Mild degree of distal discoloration involving single nail without any
dystrophy may be acceptable.
(g) Giant congenital melanocytic naevi, greater than 10 cm should be considered unfit , as there is a
malignant potential in such large sized naevi.
(h) Single corns/ Warts/ Callosities will be considered fit, three months after successful treatment and
no recurrence. However, candidates with multiple warts/ corns/ callosities on palms and soles or diffuse
palmoplantar mosaic warts, large callosities on pressure areas of palms and soles should be rejected.
(j) Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition known to relapse and/or recur and hence should be considered
unfit.
(k) Candidates suffering from minor degree of Leukoderma affecting the covered parts may be
accepted. Vitiligo limited only to glans penis and prepuce may be considered fit. Those having extensive
degree of skin involvement and especially, when the exposed parts are affected, eve n to a minor degree,
should be made unfit.
4. A history of chronic or recurrent episodes of skin infections will be cause for rejection. Folliculitis or sycosis
barbae from which there has been complete recovery may be considered fit.
5. Individuals who h ave chronic or frequently recurring episodes of a skin disease of a serious or incapacitating
nature e.g. eczema are to be assessed as permanently unfit and rejected.
6. Any sign of Leprosy will be a cause for rejection. All peripheral nerves should be ex amined for any thickness
of the nerves and any clinical evidence suggestive of leprosy is a ground for rejection.
7. Naevus depigmentosus and Beckers naevus may be considered fit. Intradermal naevus, vascular naevi are to
be made unfit.
8. Pityriasis Versicolor is to be made unfit.
9. Any fungal infection (like Tinea Cruris and Tinea Corporis) of any part of the body will be unfit.
10. Scrotal Eczema may be considered fit on recovery.
11. Canities (premature graying of hair) may be considered f it if mild in nature and no systemic association is
seen.
12. Intertrigo may be considered fit on recovery.
13. Genital Ulcers should be considered unfit. Anal and perianal area should also be included as a part of genital
examination to rule out STD.
14. Scabies may be considered fit only on recovery.
15. Alopecia areata single and small (<2 cm in diameter) lesion on scalp can be accepted. However if multiple,
involving other areas or having scarring, the candidate should be rejected.
MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM AND PHYSICAL CAPACITY
1. Assessment of the candidate‘s physique is to be based upon careful observation of such general parameters as
apparent muscular development, age, height, weight and the correlation of this i.e. potential ability to acquire p hysical
stamina with training. The candidate‘s physical capacity is affected by general physical development or by any
constitutional or pathological condition.
SPINAL CONDITIONS
2. Past medical history of disease or injury of the spine or sacroiliac jo ints, either with or without objective
signs, which has prevented the candidate from successfully following a physically active life, is a cause for rejection
for commissioning. History of recurrent lumbago/ spinal fracture/ prolapsed intervertebral disc a nd surgical treatment
for these conditions will entail rejection.
Evaluation of Spine
3. Clinical Examination. Normal thoracic kyphosis and cervical/ lumbar lordosis are barely noticeable and not
associated with pain or restriction of movement.
(a) If cli nical examination reveals restriction of spine movements, deformities, tenderness of the spine
or any gait abnormalities, it will be considered unfit.
(b) Gross kyphosis, affecting military bearing/ restricts full range of spinal movements and/or
expansio n of chest is unfit.
(c) Scoliosis is unfit, if deformity persists on full flexion of the spine, when associated with restricted
range of spine movements or when due to an underlying pathological cause. When scoliosis is noticeable or
any pathological con dition of the spine is suspected, radiographic examination of the appropriate part of the
spine needs to be carried out.
(d) Spina Bifida . The following markers should be looked for, on clinical examination and
corroborated with radiological evaluation:
(i) Congenital defects overlying the spine e.g. hypertrichosis, skin dimpling, haemangioma,
pigmented naevus or dermal sinus.
(ii) Presence of lipoma over spine.
(iii) Palpable spina bifida.
(iv) Abnormal findings on neurological examination.
4. Radiog raph Spine. For flying duties, radiograph (AP and lateral views) of cervical, thoracic and
lumbosacral spine is to be carried out. For ground duties, radiographic examination of spine may be carried out, if
deemed necessary by Medical Officer/ Specialist.
5. Spinal Conditions Unfit for Air Force Duties (Both Flying and Ground Duties)
(a) Congenital/ Developmental Anomalies
(i) Wedge Vertebra
(ii) Hemivertebra
(iii) Anterior Central Defect
(iv) Cervical Ribs (Unilateral/ Bilateral) with demonstrable neurolog ical or circulatory deficit
(v) Spinabifida: - All types are unfit except in sacrum and LV5 (if completely sacralised)
(vi) Loss of Cervical Lordosis when assessed with clinically restricted movement of cervical
spine.
(vii) Scoliosis: -
(aa) Lumbar Scoliosi s greater than 15 degrees
(ab) Thoracic scoliosis greater than 20 degrees
(ac) Thoraco -lumbar scoliosis greater than 20 degrees
(viii) Atlanto -occipital and Atlanto -axial anomalies
(ix) Incomplete Block (fused) vertebra at any level in cervical, dorsal or lumbar spine.
(x) Complete Block (fused) vertebra at more than one level in cervical or dorsal spine. (Single
level is acceptable. Annotation is to be made in AFMSF -2)
(xi) Unilateral sacralisation or lumbarisation (complete or incomplete) and Bilateral in complete
sacralisation or lumbarisation (LSTV - Castellvi Type II a & b, III a & IV) (Bilateral
Complete Sacralisation of LV5 and Bilateral Complete Lumbarisation of SV1 i.e LSTV
Castellvi Type III b and Type I a & b are acceptable (Annotation is to be made in
AFMSF -2)
(b) Traumatic Conditions
(i) Spondylolysis/ Spondylolisthesis
(ii) Compression fracture of vertebra
(iii) Intervertebral Disc Prolapse
(iv) Schmorl‘s Nodes at more than one level
(c) Infective
(i) Tuberculosis and other Granulomatous disease of spine (old or active)
(ii) Infective Spondylitis
(d) Autoimmune
(i) Rheumatoid Arthritis and allied disorders
(ii) Ankylosing spondylitis
(iii) Other rheumatological disorders of spine e.g Polymyositis, SLE and Vasculitis
(e) Degenerative
(i) Spondylos is
(ii) Degenerative Joint Disorders
(iii) Degenerative Disc Disease
(iv) Osteoarthrosis/ osteoarthritis
(v) Scheuerman‘s Disease (Adolescent Kyphosis)
(f) Any other spinal abnormality, if so considered by the specialist.
CONDITIONS AFFECTING THE ASSESSMEN T OF UPPER LIMBS
6. Deformities of the upper limbs or their parts will be cause for rejection. Candidate with an amputation of a
limb will not be accepted for entry. Amputation of terminal phalanx of little finger on both sides is, however,
acceptable.
7. Healed Fractures
(a) In the following conditions, healed fractures of upper limb are not acceptable: -
(i) Fractures involving articular surfaces
(ii) Fractures associated with neuro -vascular deficit
(iii) Malunited fractures.
(iv) Fracture cau sing impairment of function
(v) Fractures with implant in -situ
(b) Fracture of the upper limb, presenting 06 months after the injury with none of the sequelae as mentioned
above are acceptable after assessment by orthopaedic surgeon.
8. Fingers and Ha nds. Syndactyly and polydactyly will be assessed as unfit except when polydactyly is
excised. Deformities and limitations to movements will be considered unfit.
9. Wrist. Painless limitation of movement of the wrist will be assessed according to the degr ee of stiffness.
Loss of dorsiflexion is more serious than loss of palmar flexion.
10. Elbow . Slight limitation of movement does not bar acceptance provided functional capacity is adequate.
Ankylosis will entail rejection. Cubitus Valgus is said to be pr esent when the carrying angle (angle between arm and
forearm in anatomical posture) is exaggerated. In absence of functional disability and obvious cause like a fracture
mal-union, fibrosis or the like, a carrying angle of upto 15º in male and 18º in femal e candidates would be made fit.
11. Cubitus Varus of > 5 degree will be unfit.
12. Shoulder Girdle . History of recurrent dislocation of shoulder with or without corrective surgery will be
unfit.
13. Clavicle . Non -union of an old fracture clavicle will e ntail rejection. Mal -united clavicle fracture without loss
of function and without obvious deformity are acceptable.
CONDITIONS AFFECTING THE ASSESSMENT OF LOWER LIMBS
14 Hallux valgus with angle >20 degrees and first -second metatarsal angle of >10 degr ees is unfit. Hallux valgus
of any degree with bunion, corns or callosities is unfit.
15. Hallux rigidus is unfit for service.
16. Isolated single flexible mild hammer toe without symptoms may be accepted. Fixed (rigid) deformity or
hammer toe associat ed with corns, callosities, mallet toes or hyperextension at meta -tarso -phalangeal joint (claw toe
deformity) are to be rejected.
17. Loss of any digits/ toes entails rejection.
18. Extra digits will entail rejection if there is bony continuity with adja cent digits. Cases of syndactyly will be
rejected.
19. Pes Planus (Flat feet)
(a) If the arches of the feet reappear on standing on toes, if the candidate can skip and run well on the toes and if
the feet are supple, mobile and painless, the candidate is acceptable.
(b) Rigid or fixed flat feet, gross flat feet, with planovalgus, eversion of heel, cannot balance himself/herself on
toes, cannot skip on the forefoot, tender painful tarsal joints, prominent head of talus will be considered unfit.
Restrict ion of the movements of the foot will also be a cause for rejection. Rigidity of the foot, whatever may be
the shape of the foot, is a cause for rejection.
20. Pes Cavus and Talipes (Club Foot). Mild degree of idiopathic pes cavus without any functional l imitation
is acceptable. Moderate and severe pes cavus and pes cavus due to organic disease will entail rejection. All cases of
Talipes (Club Foot) will be rejected.
21. Ankle Joints . Any significant limitation of movement following previous injuries wil l not be accepted.
Functional evaluation with imaging should be carried out wherever necessary.
22. Knee Joint . Any ligamentous laxity is not accepted. Candidates who have undergone ACL reconstruction
surgery are to be considered unfit.
23. Genu valgum ( knock knee) with intermalleolar distance > 5 cm in males and > 8 cm in females will be unfit.
24. Genu varum (bow legs) with intercondylar distance >7 cm will be considered unfit.
25. Genu Recurvatum. If the hyperextension of the knee is within 10 degre es and is unaccompanied by any
other deformity, the candidate should be accepted as fit.
26. True lesions of the hip joint or early signs of arthritis will entail rejection.
27. Peripheral Vascular System
(a) Varicose Veins . All cases with active varicose veins will be declared unfit. Post -op cases of varicose
veins also remain unfit.
(b) Arterial System . Current or history of abnormalities of the arteries and blood vessels e.g. aneurysms,
arteritis and peripheral arterial disease will be considered unfit .
(c) Lymphoedema. History of past/ current disease makes the candidate unfit.
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. A candidate giving a history of mental illness/ psychological afflictions requires detailed investigation and
psychiatric referral. Such cases shoul d normally be rejected. Most often the history is not volunteered. The examiner
should try to elicit a history by direct questioning, which may or may not be fruitful. Every examiner should form a
general impression of the candidate‘s personality as a wh ole and may enquire into an individual‘s stability and
habitual reactions to difficult and stressful situations. Family history and prior history of using medication is also
relevant.
2. History of insomnia, phobias, nightmares or frequent sleepwalking or Bed -wetting, when recurrent or
persistent, will be a cause for rejection.
3. Common types of recurrent headaches are those due to former head injury or migraine. Other forms of
occasional headache must be considered in relation to their probable cause. A candidate with migraine, which was
severe enough to make him/her consult his/her doctor, should normally be a cause for rejection. Even a single attack
of migraine with visual disturbance or Migrainous epilepsy is to be made unfit.
4. History of epile psy in a candidate is a cause for rejection. Convulsions/ fits after the age of five are also a
cause for rejection. Convulsions in infancy may not be of ominous nature provided it appears that the convulsions
were febrile convulsions and were not associ ated with any overt neurological deficit. Causes of epilepsy include
genetic factors, traumatic brain injury, stroke, infection, demyelinating and degenerative disorders, birth defects,
substance abuse and withdrawal seizures. Enquiry should not be limited only to the occurrence of major attacks.
Seizures may masquerade as ― ―faints‖ and therefore the frequency and the conditions under which ― ―faints‖ took
place must be elicited. Such attacks will be made unfit, whatever their apparent nature. An isolat ed fainting attack
calls for enquiry into all the attendant factors to distinguish between syncope and seizures e.g. fainting in school are of
common occurrence and may have little significance. Complex partial seizures, which may manifest as vegetative
movements as lip smacking, chewing, staring, dazed appearance and periods of unresponsiveness, are criteria for
making the candidate unfit.
5. History of repeated attacks of heat stroke, hyperpyrexia or heat exhaustion bars employment for Air Force
duties, as it is an evidence of a faulty heat regulating mechanism. A single severe attack of heat effects, provided the
history of exposure was severe, and no permanent sequelae were evident is, by itself, not a reason for rejecting the
candidate.
6. A history o f severe head injury is a cause for rejection. Other sequelae of head injury like post -concussion
syndrome, focal neurological deficit and post traumatic epilepsy should be noted which may be associated with
subjective symptoms of headache, giddiness, inso mnia, restlessness, irritability, poor concentration and attention
deficits. Post traumatic neuropsychological impairment can also occur which includes deficits in attention
concentration, information processing speeds, mental flexibility and frontal lobe executive functions and psychosocial
functioning. Neuropsychological testing including pyschometry can assess these aspects. It is important to realize that
sequelae may persist for considerable period and may even be permanent. Fracture of the skull need not be a cause for
rejection unless there is a history of associated intracranial damage or any residual bony defect in the calvaria. When
there is a history of severe injury or an associated convulsive attack, an electroencephalogram should be carried out
which must be normal. Presence of burr holes will be cause for rejection for flying duties, but not for ground duties.
Each case is to be judged on individual merits. Opinion of Neurosurgeon and Psychiatrist must be obtained before
acceptance.
7. When a h istory of nervous breakdown, mental disease, or suicide of a near relative is obtained, a careful
investigation of the personal past history from a psychological point of view is to be obtained. Any evidence of even
the slightest psychological instability in the personal history or present condition should entail rejection and the
candidate should be referred to the psychiatrist for further evaluation.
8. If a family history of epilepsy is admitted, an attempt should be made to determine its type. When the
condition has occurred in a near (first degree) relative, the candidate may be accepted, if he has no history of
associated disturbance of consciousness, neurological deficit or higher mental functions and his electroencephalogram
is completely normal.
9. The assessment of emotional stability must include family and personal history, any indication of emotional
instability under stress as evidenced by the occurrence of undue emotionalism as a child or of any previous nervous
illness or breakdown. The pre sence of stammering, tic, nail biting, excessive hyperhydrosis or restlessness during
examination could be indicative of emotional instability and should be made unfit.
10. All candidates who are suffering from psychosis are to be rejected. Drug dependen ce in any form will also
be a cause for rejection.
11. Psychoneurosis . Mentally unstable and neurotic individuals are unfit for commissioning. Juvenile and adult
delinquency, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill -health is causes for rejection. Pa rticular attention should be
paid to such factors as unhappy childhood, poor family background, truancy, juvenile and adult delinquency, poor
employment and social maladjustment records, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill -health, particularly if t hese
have interfered with employment in the past.
12. Any evident neurological deficit should call for rejection.
13. Tremors are rhythmic oscillatory movements of reciprocally innervated muscle groups. Two categories are
recognized: normal or physiolo gic and abnormal or pathologic. Fine tremor is present in all contracting muscle
groups, it persists throughout the waking state, the movement is fine between 8 to 13 Hz. Pathologic tremor is coarse,
between 4 to 7 Hz and usually affects the distal part of limbs. Gross tremors are generally due to enhanced
physiological causes where, at the same frequency, the amplitude of the tremor is grossly enhanced and is elicited by
outstretching the arms and fingers which are spread apart. This occurs in cases of exc essive fright, anger, anxiety,
intense physical exertion, metabolic disturbances including hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal and toxic effects of
lithium, smoking (nicotine) and excessive tea, coffee. Other causes of coarse tremor are Parkinsonism, cereb ellar
tremors (intentional tremors), essential (familial) tremor, tremors of neuropathy and postural or action tremors.
14. Candidates with stammering will not be accepted for Air Force duties. Careful assessment by ENT Specialist,
Speech therapist, psyc hologist/ psychiatrist may be required in doubtful cases.
15. Basal Electroencephalogram (EEG) . EEG is to be recorded for candidates for aircrew duties only in case
there is a history of epilepsy in the family, past history of head injury and/or any ot her psychological or neurological
abnormality noted in the past. These aspects will be carefully enquired into. In case of other candidates also, EEG can
be taken if indicated or considered necessary by the medical examiner. Those with following EEG abnorm alities in
resting EEG or EEG under provocative techniques will be rejected for aircrew duties: -
(a) Background Activity. Focal, excessive and high amplitude beta activity/hemispherical asymmetry of
more than 2.3 Hz/generalized and focal runs of slow w aves approaching background activity in amplitude.
(b) Hyperventilation. Paroxysmal spikes and slow waves/spikes/focal spike pattern.
(c) Photo Stimulation. Bilaterally synchronous or focal paroxysmal spikes and slow waves persisting in
post-photic stimu lation period/suppression or driving response over one hemisphere.
16. Non specific EEG abnormality will be acceptable provided opinion of Neuropsychiatrist/Neurophysician is
obtained. The findings of EEG will be entered in AFMSF -2. In case an EEG is rep orted as abnormal, the cadet would
be referred to CHAF (B) for a comprehensive evaluation by neurophysician followed by review by a Board at IAM
IAF.
EAR, NOSE AND THROAT
1. History. Any significant history of otorrhoea, hearing loss, vertigo including moti on sickness, tinnitus etc is
to be elicited.
2. Nose and Para -nasal Sinuses . The following entails rejection:
(a) Gross external deformity of nose causing cosmetic deformity may be rejected if it adversely impacts
military bearing. However, minor defor mities of dorsum and nasal tip should not be a cause of rejection.
(b) Obstruction to free breathing as a result of a marked septal deviation. Post corrective surgery with
residual mild deviation with adequate airway patency will be acceptable.
(c) Septal perforation is unacceptable. However, asymptomatic anterior (cartilaginous) septal
perforation may be accepted by ENT specialist provided chronic granulomatous diseases have been ruled out
and nasal mucosa is healthy.
(d) Atrophic rhinitis.
(e) Any history/clinical evidence suggestive of allergic rhinitis/ vasomotor rhinitis will entail rejection.
(f) Any infection of the para -nasal sinuses will be declared unfit. Such cases may be accepted following
successful treatment at the Appeal Medical Boa rd.
(g) Current nasal polyposis is a cause for rejection. However, such cases may be accepted after
Endoscopic Sinus Surgery provided there is no residual disease, mucosa is healthy and histopathology is
benign and non -fungal. Such evaluation will be don e minimum 04 weeks post -surgery.
3. Oral Cavity
(a) Unfit
(i) Current/ operated cases of leukoplakia, erythroplakia, submucous fibrosis, ankyloglossia
and oral carcinoma.
(ii) Current oral ulcers/ growths and mucous retention cysts.
(iii) Trismus d ue to any cause.
(iv) Cleft palate, even after surgical correction.
(b) Fit
(i) Completely healed oral ulcers.
(ii) Operated cases of mucus retention cyst with no recurrence and proven benign histology.
Evaluation in these cases should be done afte r minimum 04 weeks post -surgery.
(iii) Sub-mucous cleft of palate with or without bifid uvula not causing Eustachian tube
dysfunction may be accepted by ENT specialist, provided PTA, tympanometry and speech are
normal.
4. Pharynx and Larynx . The follow ing conditions will entail rejection:
(a) Any ulcerative/ mass lesion of the pharynx.
(b) Candidates in whom tonsillectomy is indicated. Such candidates may be accepted minimum 02
weeks after successful surgery provided there are no complications and his tology is benign.
(c) Cleft palate.
(d) Any disabling condition of the pharynx or larynx causing persistent hoarseness or dysphonia.
(e) Chronic laryngitis, vocal cord palsy, laryngeal polyps and growths.
5. Obstruction or insufficiency of Eustachian tube function will be a cause for rejection. Altitude chamber ear
clearance test will be carried out before acceptance in in -service candidates.
6. The presence of tinnitus necessitates investigation of its duration, localization, severity and possible
causation. Persistent tinnitus is a cause for rejection, as it is liable to become worse through exposure to noise and
may be a precursor to Otosclerosis and Meniere‘s disease.
7. Specific enquiry should be made for any susceptibility to motion sickness. A n endorsement to this effect
should be made in AFMSF -2. Such cases will be fully evaluated and, if found susceptible to motion sickness, they
will be rejected for flying duties. Any evidence of peripheral vestibular dysfunction due to any cause will entail
rejection.
8. A candidate with a history of dizziness needs to be investigated thoroughly.
9. Hearing loss. The following are not acceptable:
(a) Any reduction less than 600 cm in CV/ FW.
(b) Wherever PTA is indicated and thresholds are obtained, the a udiometric loss greater than 20 db, in
frequencies between 250 and 8000 Hz.
(c) Free field hearing loss is a cause for rejection.
Note: In evaluating the audiogram, the baseline zero of the audiometer and the environmental noise
conditions under which the audiogram has been obtained should be taken into consideration. On the
recommendation of an ENT Specialist, an isolated unilateral hearing loss up to 30 db may be condoned
provided ENT examination is otherwise normal.
10. Ears. A radical/modified radical mastoidectomy entails rejection even if completely epithelialised and good
hearing is preserved. Cases of cortical mastoidectomy in the past with the tympanic membrane intact, normal hearing
and presenting no evidence of disease may be accepted.
11. External Ear . The following defects of external ear should be declared unfit:
(a) Gross deformity of pinna which may hamper wearing of uniform/ personal kit/ protective
equipment, or which adversely impacts military bearing.
(b) Cases of chronic otitis ex terna.
(c) Exostoses, atreisa/ narrowing of EAM or neoplasm preventing a proper examination of the ear
drum.
(d) Exaggerated tortuosity of the canal, obliterating the anterior view of the tympanic membrane will be
a cause for rejection.
(e) Granulatio n or polyp in external auditory canal.
12. Middle Ear . The following conditions of middle ear will entail rejection: -
(a) Current otitis media of any type.
(b) Attic, central or marginal perforation.
(c) Tympanosclerosis or scarring affecting >50 % of the Pars Tensa of TM is unfit even if PTA
and tympanometry are normal. Evidence of healed chronic Otitis Media in the form of
Tympanosclerosis or scarrign affecting <50 % of Pars Tensa of TM will be assessed by ENT spl and
will be acceptable if PTA and tympanometry are normal. A trial of decompression chamber may be
carried out, if indicated,for aircrew, ATC/FC, submariners/divers.
(d) Any residual perforation in cases of old otitis media.
(e) Marked retraction or restriction in TM mobility on pn eumatic otoscopy.
(f) Any hearing impairment on forced Whisper test.
(g) Deranged pure tone audiometry thresholds.
(h) Tympanometry showing patterns other than Type ‗A‘ tympanogram.
(j) Any implanted hearing devices e.g. cochlear implants, bone ancho red hearing aids etc.
(k) After middle ear surgeries viz. stapedectomy, ossiculoplasty, any type of canal -wall down
mastoidectomy.
Note: Healed healthy scars of neo -tympanic membrane involving <50 % of Pars Tensa due to Type 1
Tympanoplasty (with or wit hout Cortical Mastoidectomy) for Chronic Otitis Media (Mucosal type) and
Myringotomy (for Otitis Media with Effusion) may be acceptable if PTA, Tympanoplasty are normal.
Assessment of operated cases will be done only after a minimum of 12 weeks. A trial in Decompression
Chamber may be carried out, if indicated, for aircrew, ATC/FC, submariners/ divers.
13. Miscellaneous Ear Conditions. The following ear conditions will entail rejection: -
(a) Otosclerosis.
(b) Meniere‗s disease.
(c) Vestibular dysfuncti on including nystagmus of vestibular origin.
(d) Bell‗s palsy following ear infection.
OPHTHALMIC SYSTEM
1. Visual defects and medical ophthalmic conditions are amongst the major causes of rejection from flying
duties. Therefore, a thorough and a ccurate eye examination is of great importance for all candidates, especially those
for flying duties.
2. Personal and Family History and External Examination
(a) Squint and the need for spectacles for other reasons are frequently hereditary and a family history
may give valuable information on the degree of deterioration to be anticipated. Candidates, who are
wearing spectacles or found to have defective vision, should be properly assessed. All cases of squint
should be made unfit by recruiting MO and by Specialist. Individuals with manifest squint are not
acceptable for commissioning. However, small horizontal latent squint/ Phoria i.e. Exophoria/ Esophoria
may be considered fit by the specialist along with Grade III BSV. Hyperphoria/ Hypophoria or cyclo phoria
are to be made unfit.
(b) Ptosis interfering with vision or visual field is a cause for rejection till surgical correction remains
successful for a period of six months. Mild ptosis which is not affecting vision/ visual field in day or night
may be considered fit. In such situations, the assessment in central 30 degree of visual field should be done
properly.
(c) Candidates with uncontrollable blepharitis, particularly with loss of eyelashes, are generally
unsuitable and should be rejected. Seve re cases of blepharitis and chronic conjunctivitis should be assessed
as temporarily unfit until the response to treatment can be assessed.
(d) These cases of Ectropion/ Entropion are to be made unfit. Mild ectropion and entropion which in the
opinion of ophthalmologist will not hamper day to day functioning in any way, may be made fit.
(e) All cases of progressive pterygium to be made unfit by recruiting MO and specialist. Regressive non
vascularised pterygium likely to be stationary occupying ≤ 1.5 mm of the peripheral cornea may be made fit
by eye spl after measurement on a slit lamp.
(f) All cases of nystagmus are to be made unfit except for physiologic nystagmus.
(g) Naso -lacrymal occlusion producing epiphora or a mucocele entails rejection, unles s surgery
produces relief lasting for a minimum of six months and the post op syringing is patent.
(h) Uveitis (iritis, cyclitis, and choroiditis) is frequently recurrent, and candidates giving a history of or
exhibiting this condition should be carefull y assessed. When there is evidence of permanent lesions such
candidates should be rejected.
(j) Corneal scars, opacities will be cause for rejection unless it does not interfere with vision. Such
cases should be carefully assessed before acceptance, as many conditions are recurrent.
(k) Cases with Lenticular opacities should be assessed carefully. As a guideline any opacity causing
visual deterioration, or is in the visual axis or is present in an area of 7 mm around the pupil, which may
cause glare phenomena, should not be considered fit. The propensity of the opacities not to increase in
number or size should also be a consideration when deciding fitness. Small stationary lenticular opacities in
the periphery like congenital Blue Dot cataract, not a ffecting the visual axis/ visual field may be considered
fit by specialist. (It should be less than 10 in number and central area of 4 mm to be clear).
(l) Visual disturbances associated with headaches of a migrainous type are not a strictly ocular
probl em, and should be assessed in accordance with para 3 of Central Nervous System Section mentioned
above. Presence of diplopia or detection of nystagmus requires proper examination, as they can be due to
physiological reasons.
(m) Night blindness is large ly congenital but certain diseases of the eye exhibit night blindness as an
early symptom and hence, proper investigations are necessary before final assessment. As tests for night
blindness are not routinely performed, a certificate to the effect that the individual does not suffer from
night blindness will be obtained in every case. Certificate should be as per Appendix ‘A’ to this
notification. A proven case of night -blindness is unfit for service.
(n) Restriction of movements of the eyeball in any di rection and undue depression/ prominence of the
eyeball requires proper assessment.
(o) Retinal lesions . A small healed chorio -retinal scar in the retinal periphery not affecting the vision
and not associated with any other complications can be made fit b y specialist. Similarly a small lattice in
periphery with no other complications can be made fit. Any lesion in the central fundus will be made unfit
by the specialist.
3. Visual Acuity/ Colour Vision for Male and Female Candidates . The visual acuity and colour vision
requirements for male and female Candidates are detailed in Appendix ‘B’ and Appendix ‘C respectively to this
notification. Those who do not meet these requirements are to be rejected.
4. Myopia . If there is a strong family history of Myopi a, particularly if it is established that the visual defect is
recent, if physical growth is still expected, or if the fundus appearance is suggestive of progressive myopia, even if the
visual acuity is within the limit prescribed, the candidate should be declared unfit.
5. Refractive Surgeries. Candidates who have undergone Photo Refractive Keratotomy (PRK)/ Laser in -situ
Kearomileusis (LASIK) may be considered fit for commissioning in the Air Force in all branches. Post PRK/LASIK
candidates must meet th e following criteria of visual requirements for the branch as laid down below: -
(a) PRK/LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20 years.
(b) The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5 mm as measured by IOL master .
(c) At least 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable PRK/LASIK with no history
or evidence of any complication.
(d) The post PRK/LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal pachymeter should not be
less than 450 microns.
(e) Individuals with high refractive errors (>6D) prior to LASIK are to be excluded.
6. Radial Keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is not permitted for any Air Force duties.
Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit.
OCULAR MUSCLE BALANCE
7. Individuals with manifest squint are not acceptable for commissioning. The assessment of latent squint or
heterophoria in the case of aircrew will be mainly based on the assessment of th e fusion capacity. A strong fusion
sense ensures the maintenance of binocular vision in the face of stress and fatigue. Hence, it is the main criterion for
acceptability.
(a) Convergence (as assessed on RAF rule)
(i) Objective Convergence. Average is fro m 6.5 to 8 cm. It is poor at 10 cm and above.
(ii) Subjective Convergence (SC) . This indicates the end point of binocular vision under the
stress of convergence. If the subjective convergence is more than 10 cm beyond the limit of
objective convergence, the fusion capacity is poor. This is specially so when the objective
convergence is 10 cm and above.
(b) Accommodation . In the case of myopes, accommodation should be assessed with corrective glasses
in position. The acceptable values for accommodatio n in various age groups are given in Table 1.
Table 1 -Accommodation Values – Age wise
Age in Yrs 17-20 21-25 26-30 31-35 36-40 41-45
Accommodation (in
cm) 10-11 11-12 12.5-13.5 14-16 16-18.5 18.5-27
8. Ocular muscle balance is dynamic and varies with concentration, anxiety, fatigue, hypoxia, drugs and
alcohol. The above tests should be considered together for the final assessment. For example, cases just beyond the
maximum limits of the Maddox Rod test, but who show a good binocular response, a good o bjective convergence
with little difference from subjective convergence, and full and rapid recovery on the cover tests may be accepted. On
the other hand, cases well within Maddox Rod test limits, but who show little or no fusion capacity, incomplete or n o
recovery on the cover tests, and poor subjective convergence should be rejected. Standards for assessment of Ocular
Muscle Balance for male and female Candidates are detailed in Appendix ‘D’ and Appendix ‘E’, respectively, to
notification.
9. Any clini cal findings in the media (cornea, lens, vitreous) or fundus, which is of pathological nature and
likely to progress will be a cause for rejection. This examination will be done by slit lamp and ophthalmoscopy under
mydriasis.
Appendix ‘A’
[Refers to par a 2 (m) Ophthalmology standards]
CERTIFICATE REGARDING NIGHT BLINDNESS
Name with initials___________________________________________________________ Batch No.
_________________________ Chest No ________________________
I hereby certify that to the best of my knowledge, there has not been any case of night blindness in our
family, and I do not suffer from it.
Date: (Signature of the candidate)
Countersign ed by
(Name of Medical Officer)
Appendix ‘B’
(para 3 above of Ophthalmology standards)
VISUAL STANDARDS FOR MALE CANDIDATES AT INITIAL ENTRY
Sl
No. Med
Cat Branch Maximum Limits of
Refractive Error Visual Acuity (VA) with
limits of maximum
correction Colo ur
Vision
1 A1G1 F (P) including
WSOs , Flying
Branch Candidates
at NDA and AFA
Hypermetropia: + 1.5D Sph
Manifest Myopia: Nil
Astigmatism: +0.75D Cyl
(within +1.5 D Max)
Retinoscopic myopia: Nil 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in
other, correctable to 6/6
only for Hypermetropia CP-I
2. A4G1 10+2/NDA Entry
to Ground duty
branches of IAF
(AE(L), Adm,
Lgs) Hypermetropia: + 2.5D Sph
Myopia: -2.5D Sph
Astigmatism: +/ - 2.0D Cyl Uncorrected VA 6/36 &
6/36
Best Corrected VA 6/6 &
6/6 CP II for
AE(L)/
Adm
CP III only
for Lgs
Note 1 : Ocular muscle balance for personnel covered in Sl. Nos. 1 and 2 should conform to Appendix D to this
Chapter.
Note 2 : Visual standards of Air Wing Candidates at NDA and Flt Cdts of F (P) at AFA should conform to A1G1 F
(P) standard (S 1. No. 1 of Appendix B)
Note 3: The Sph correction factors mentioned above will be inclusive of the specified astigmatic correction factor. A
minimum correction factor upto the specified visual acuity standard can be accepted
Appendix ‘C’
(para 3 above o f Ophthalmology standards)
VISUAL STANDARDS FOR FEMALE CANDIDATES AT INITIAL ENTRY
Sl No. Branch Maximum Limits of Refractive
Error Visual Acuity (VA) with
limits of maximum correction Colour Vision
1 Flying
Branch
Hypermetropia: + 1.5D Sph Manifest
Myop ia: Nil
Astigmatism: +0.75D Cyl
(within +1.5 D Max)
Retin oscopic myopia: Nil 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in other,
correctable to 6/6 only for
Hypermetropia CP-I
2. Ground Duty
Branch Hypermetropia: + 2.5D Sph Myopia:
-2.5D Sph
Astigmatism: +/ - 2.0D Cyl Uncorrected VA 6/36 & 6/36
Best Corrected VA 6/6 & 6/6 CP II for AE(L)/
Adm
CP III only for
Lgs
Appendix ‘D’
(para 8 above of Ophthalmology
standards)
STANDARD OF OCULAR MUSCLE BALANCE FOR FLYING DUTIES FOR MALE CANDIDATES
Sl.
No. Test Fit Temporary Unfi t Permanently Unfit
1 Maddox Rod
Test at 6
meters Exo-6 Prism D
Eso -6 Prism D
Hyper -1 prism D
Hypo - 1 prism D Exo- Greater than 6 prism D Eso -
Greater than 6 prism D Hyper -
Greater than 1 prism D Hypo -
Greater than 1 prism D Uniocular suppression Hyper /
Hypo more than 2 prism D
2 Maddox Rod
Test at 33 cm Exo-16 Prism D
Eso- 6 Prism D
Hyper - 1 Prism D
Hypo - 1 Prism D Exo - Greater than 16 prism D Eso -
Greater than 6 prism D Hyper
Greater than 1 prism D Hypo
Greater than 1 prism D Uniocular suppression Hyper/
Hypo more than 2 prism D
3 Hand held
Stereoscope All of BSV grades Poor Fusional reserves Absence of SMP, fusion
Stereopsis
4 Convergence Up to 10 cm Up to 15 cm with effort Greater than 15 cm with effort
5 Cover test for
Distance and
Near Laten t divergence /
convergence
recovery rapid and
complete Compensated heterophoria/ trophia
likely to improve with treatment /
persisting even after treatment Compensated heterophoria
Appendix ‘E’
(para 8 above of
Ophthalmology standards)
STANDARD OF OCULA R MUSCLE BALANCE FOR FLYING DUTIES FOR FEMALE CANDIDATES
Sl.
No. Test Fit Temporary Unfit Permanently Unfit
1 Maddox Rod
Test at 6
meters Exo-6 Prism D Eso -
6 Prism D Hyper -1
prism D Hypo - 1
prism D Exo- Greater than 6 prism D Eso -
Greater than 6 prism D Hyper -
Greater than 1 prism D Hypo -
Greater than 1 prism D Uniocular suppression
Hyper/ Hypo more than 2
prism D
2 Maddox Rod
Test at 33 cm Exo-16 Prism D Eso -
6 Prism D Hyper - 1
Prism D Hypo - 1
Prism D Exo - Greater than 16 prism D Eso
- Greater than 6 prism D Hyper
Greater than 1 prism D Hypo
Greater than 1 prism D Uniocular suppression
Hyper/ Hypo more than 2
prism D
3 Hand held
Stereoscope All of BSV grades Poor Fusional reserves Absence of SMP, fusion
Stereopsis
4 Convergence Up to 10 cm Up to 1 5 cm with effort Greater than 15 cm with
effort
5 Cover test for
Distance and
Near Latent divergence /
convergence recovery
rapid and complete Compensated heterophoria/ trophia
likely to improve with treatment /
persisting even after treatment Compensate d heterophoria
HAEMOPOIETIC SYSTEM
1. History of easy fatiguability, general weakness, petechiae/ ecchymosis, bleeding from gums and alimentary
tract, persistent bleeding after minor trauma and menorrhagia in case of females should be carefully elicited. All
candidates should be examined for clinical evidence of pallor (anaemia), malnutrition, icterus, peripheral
lymphadenopathy, purpura, petechiae/ ecchymoses and hepatosplenomegaly.
2. In the event of laboratory confirmation of anaemia (<13g/dl in ma les and <11.5g/dl in females), further
evaluation to ascertain type of anaemia and aetiology has to be carried out. This should include a complete
haemogram (to include the PCV MCV, MCH, MCHC, TRBC, TWBC, DLC, Platelet count, reticulocyte count and
ESR) an d a peripheral blood smear. All the other tests to establish the aetiology will be carried out, as required.
Ultrasonography of abdomen for gallstones, upper GI Endoscopy/ proctoscopy and hemoglobin electrophoresis etc.
may be done, as indicated, and the f itness of the candidate, decided on the merit of each case.
3. Candidates with mild microcytic hypochromic (Iron deficiency anaemia) or dimorphic anaemia (Hb <
10.5g/dl in females and < 11.5g/dl in males), in the first instance, may be made temporarily u nfit for a period of 04 to
06 weeks followed by review thereafter. These candidates can be accepted, if the complete haemogram and PCV,
peripheral smear results are within the normal range. Candidates with macrocytic/ megaloblastic anaemia will be
assesse d unfit.
4. All candidates with evidence of hereditary haemolytic anaemias (due to red cell membrane defect or due to
red cell enzyme deficiencies) and haemoglobinopathies (Sickle cell disease, Beta Thalassaemia: Major, Intermedia,
Minor, Trait and Alph a Thalassaemia etc.) are to be considered unfit for service.
5. In the presence of history of haemorrhage into the skin like ecchymosis/ petechiae, epistaxis, bleeding from
gums and alimentary tract, persistent bleeding after minor trauma or lacerations/ t ooth extraction or menorrhagia in
females and any family history of haemophilia or other bleeding disorders a full evaluation will be carried out. These
cases will not be acceptable for entry to service. All candidates with clinical evidence of purpura or evidence of
thrombocytopenia are to be considered unfit for service. Cases of Purpura Simplex (simple easy bruising), a benign
disorder seen in otherwise healthy female, may be accepted.
6. Candidates with history of haemophilia, von Willebrand‗s disease, on evaluation, are to be declared unfit for
service at entry level.
DENTAL FITNESS STANDARDS
1. The examiner should enquire whether the candidate has any past history of major dental procedures or
alterations. Significant past history of ulceration or infection of the tongue, gums or throat should be documented.
History suggestive of premalignant lesions or pathologies that are prone for recurrence should be elicted.
2. Dental Standards . The following dental standards are to be followed and candidates whose dental standard
does not conform to the laid down standards will be rejected: -
(a) Candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points and the following teeth must be present in the
upper jaw in good functional opposition with the corresponding teet h in the lower jaw: -
(i) Any four of the six anterior
(ii) Any six of the ten posterior
(b) Each incisor, canine 1st and 2nd premolar will have a value of one point provided their corresponding
opposite teeth are present.
(c) Each 1st and 2nd molar and well developed 3rd molar will have the value of two points, provided in
good opposition to corresponding teeth in the opposing jaw.
(d) In case 3rd molar is not well developed, it will have a value of one point only.
(e) When all the 16 teeth are present in the upper jaw and in good functional opposition to
corresponding teeth in the lower jaw, the total value will be 20 or 22 points according to whether the
3rd molars are well developed or not.
(f) All removable dental prosthesis will be removed during o ral examination and not be awarded any
dental points except in the case of ex -serviceman applying for re -enrolment, who will be awarded
dental points for well fitting removable prostheses.
3. Extra oral examination
(a) Gross facial examination . Presence of any gross asymmetry or soft/ hard tissue defects/ scars or if any
incipient pathological condition of the jaw is suspected, it will be a cause of rejection.
(b) Functional examination
(i) Temporomandibular joint (TMJ). TMJs will be bilaterally palpat ed for tenderness and/or clicking.
Candidates with symptomatic clicking and/or tenderness or dislocation of the TML on wide opening
will be rejected.
(ii) Mouth Opening. A mouth opening of less than 30 mm measured at the incisal edges will be reason
for rejection.
4. Guidelines for awarding dental points in special situations
(a) Dental caries. Teeth with caries that have not been restored or teeth associated broken down
crowns, pulp exposure, residual root stumps, teeth with abscesses and/or sinuses will not be counted for
award of dental points.
(b) Restorations. Teeth having restorations that appear to be improper/broken/discolored will not be
awarded dental points. Teeth restored by use of inappropriate materials, temporary or fractured restora tions
with doubtful marginal integrity or peri -apical pathology will not be awarded dental points.
(c) Loose teeth . Loose/mobile teeth with clinically demonstrable mobility will not be awarded dental
points. Periodontally splinted teeth will not be counte d for award of dental points.
(d) Retained deciduous teeth. Retained decid uous teeth will not be awarded dental points.
(e) Morphological defects. Teeth with structural defects which compromise efficient mastication will
not be awarded dental points.
(f) Periodontium
(i) The condition of the gums, of the teeth included for counting dental points, should be healthy, i.e.
pink in colour, firm in consistency and firm in consistency and firmly resting against the necks of the teeth.
Visible calculus shou ld not be present.
(ii) Individual teeth with swollen, red or infected gums or those with visible calculus will not be
awarded dental points.
(iii) Candidates with generalized calculus, extensive swollen and red gums, with or without exudates,
shall be rejected.
(g) Malocclusion. Candidates with malocclusion affecting masticatory efficiency and phonetics shall
not be recruited. Teeth in open bite will not be awarded dental points as they are not considered to be in
functional apposition. Candidates hav ing an open bite, reverse overjet or any visible malocclusion will be
rejected. However, if in the opinion of the dental officer, the malocclusion of teeth is not hampering efficient
mastication, phonetics, maintenance of oral hygiene or general nutrition or performance of duties efficiently,
then candidates will be declared FIT. The following criteria have to be considered in assessing malocclusion:
(i) Edge to edge bite. Edge to edge bite will be considered as functional apposition.
(ii) Anterior Ope n Bite. Anterior open bite is to be taken as lack of functional opposition of
involved teeth.
(iii) Cross bite. Teeth in cross bite may still be in functional occlusion and may be awarded
points, if so.
(iv) Traumatic bite. Anterior teeth involved in a deep impinging bite which is causing traumatic
indentations on the palate will not be counted for award of points.
(h) Hard and Soft tissues. Soft tissues of cheek, lips, palate, tongue and sublingual region and
maxilla/mandibular bony apparatus must be e xamined for any swelling, discoloration, ulcers, scars, white
patches, sub mucous fibrosis etc. All potentially malignant lesions will be cause for rejection. Clinical
diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of mouth opening will be a cause of rejection.
Bony lesion(s) will be assessed for their pathological/physiological nature and commented upon accordingly.
Any hard or soft tissue lesion will be a cause of rejection.
(j) Orthotic appliances. Fixed orthodontics lingual retainers will not be considered as periodontal
splints and teeth included in these retainers will be awarded points for dental fitness. Candidates wearing
fixed or removable orthodontic appliances will be declared UNFIT.
(k) Dental implants. When an implant supported crown replaces a single missing tooth, the prosthesis
may be awarded dental points as for natural teeth provided the prosthesis is in functional apposition and the
integrity of the implant is confirmed.
(l) Fixed Partial Dentures (FPD) / Implant supported FPDs. FPDs will be assessed clinically and
radiologically for firmness, functional apposition to opposing teeth and periodontal health of the abutments.
If all parameters are found satisfactory, dental points will be awarded as follows: -
(i) Tooth suppor ted FPDs
(aa) Prosthesis, 3 units. Dental points will be awarded for the abutments and the
pontic.
(ab) Prosthesis, more than 3 units. Dental points will be awarded only to the
abutments. No points will be awarded for the pontics.
(ac) Cantilever FDPs. Dental points will be awarded only to the abutments.
(ii) Implant supported FPDs
(aa) Prosthesis, 3 units. Dental points will be awarded for the natural teeth, implant and
the pontic.
(ab) Prosthesis, more than 3 units. Dental points will be awarded only to the natural
teeth. No points are to be awarded for pontics and implant(s).
(ac) Two unit cantilever FPDs. Dental points will be awarded only to the implants.
(m) A maximum of 02 implants will be permitted in a candidate. No points will be give n for
implants/implant supported prosthesis in excess of the 02 permissible implants. In the case of a candidate
having 03 more implants/implant supported prosthesis, which 02 are to be awarded marks will be based on
the clinical judgment of the dental off icer.
5. The following will be criteria for declaring a candidate UNFIT
(a) Oral hygiene. Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal pockets
and/or bleeding from gums will render candidate UNFIT.
(b) Candidates reporting post maxillo -facial surgery/ maxillofacial trauma. Candidates who
undergo cosmetic or post -traumatic maxillofacial surgery/ trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24 weeks from
the date of surgery/ injury whichever is later. After this period, if there is no re sidual deformity or functional
deficit, they will be assessed as per the laid down criteria.
(c) Candidate with dental arches affected by advanced stage of generalized active lesions of pyorrhoea,
acute ulcerative gingivitis, and gross abnormality of the teeth or jaws or with numerous caries or septic teeth
will be rejected.
APPENDIX -III
(BRIEF PARTICULARS OF THE SERVICE ETC. )
1. Before a candidate joins the Academy, the parent or guardian will be required to sign : —
(a) A certificate to the effect that he fully understands that he/she or his/her son or ward shall not be
entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government in respect of any injury which his son
or ward may sustain in the course of or as a result of the training or where bo dily infirmity or death results in
the course of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon or anaesthesia administered to him/her for
the treatment of any injury received as aforesaid or otherwise.
(b) A bond to the effect that if, on account o f his dismissal or discharge or withdrawal from National
Defence Academy for knowingly furnishing false particulars or suppressing material information in his
application for admission to the said National Defence Academy or in the event of his being dismi ssed or
discharged or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from the said, National Defence Academy or for any reason
not beyond the control of the cadet, he/she does not complete the prescribed period of training, or he, the
cadet, does not accept a Commissio n if offered as conventated above, then the Guarantors and the cadet shall
jointly and severally be liable to pay forthwith to Government in cash sums as the Government shall fix but
not exceeding such expenses as shall have been incurred by the Government on account of the Cadet on his
training and all the money received by the Cadets as pay and allowance from the Government together with
interest on the said money calculated at the rate in force for Government loans.
2. The cost of training including acco mmodation, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be
borne by the Government. Parents or guardians of cadets, will, however, be required to meet their pocket and other
private expenses. Normally these expenses are not likely to exceed Rs. 3 000.00 p.m. If in any case a cadet‘s parents
or guardian is unable to meet wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance of Rs. 1000.00 p.m. for the
period of training may be granted by the Government whose parents income is less than Rs. 21, 000/- per month.
Cadet whose parent‘s or guardian‘s income exceeds Rs. 21,000/ - per month will not be liable for the assistance. If
more than one son/ward simultaneously undergoing training at NDA, IMA, OTA and corresponding training
establishment in the Navy and Air Force, then BOTH would be eligible for the financial assistance.
The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having financial assistance from the Government should
immediately after his son/ward having been finally selected for training at the National Defence Academy submit an
application through the District Magistrate of his District who will forward the application with his recommendation
to the Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune – 411023.
3. Candidates finally se lected for training at the Academy will be required to deposit the following amount with
the Commandant, National Defence Academy, on their arrival there :—
(a) Pocket allowance for five months
@ Rs. 3000.00 per month. Rs. 15000.00
(b) For items of clothi ng and equipment
(Cost of clothing and equipment for candidates will be intimated subsequently at the
time of Joining Instructions)
(c) Army Group Insurance Fund Rs. 7200.00
(d) Clothing items required at the time of joining (Cost of clothing and equip ment for
candidates will be intimated subsequently at the time of Joining Instructions)
(e) Incidental Expenditure during 1st Semester Rs. 13176.00
Total (less Ser (b) & (d) to be added later) Rs. 35376.00
Out of the amount mentioned above the follo wing amount is refundable to the candidates in the event of
financial aid being sanctioned to them: —
(a) Pocket Money Allowance @ Rs 1000.00 Per Month.
(b) For items of clothing and equipment
(Brought at the time of joining)
4. The following Scholars hips/Financial Assistance are tenable at the National Defence Academy.
(1) PARASHURAM BHAU PATWARDHAN SCHOLARSHIP — This Scholarship is granted to
cadets overall first in Academics of Passing out Course. One time scholarship amount is Rs. 5000/ -.
(2) COLON EL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP — This scholarship is of the
value of Rs. 4800.00 per annum and awarded to a MARATHA cadet who should be the son of an ex -
serviceman. The scholarship is in addition to any financial assistance from the Government.
(3) KAUR SINGH MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP — Two scholarships are awarded to cadets who
obtain the highest position amongst candidates from BIHAR. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 37.00 per
mensem tenable for a maximum period of 4 years during the training at the Na tional Defence Academy,
Khadakwasla and thereafter at the Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun and the Air Force Flying College;
and Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala where the cadets may be sent for training on completion of their
training at the National Defe nce Academy. The scholarship will, however, be continued subject to
maintaining good progress at the above institution.
(4) ASSAM GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP —Two scholarships will be awarded to the cadets
from ASSAM. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 p er mensem and is tenable for the duration of a
cadet‘s stay at the National Defence Academy. The scholarships will be awarded to the two best cadets from
ASSAM without any reference to the income of their parents. The cadets who are granted this scholarshi p
will not be entitled to any other financial assistance from the Government.
(5) UTTAR PRADESH GOVERNMENT INCENTIVE SCHEME —Uttar Pradesh Sainik Punarvas
Nidhi a Trust under Hon‘ble Governor of Uttar Pradesh has started a incentive scheme for cadets joinin g
NDA/IMA/OTA/AF Academy/Naval Academy/Female Entry who are wards of ex servicemen/widows upto
JCO rank and are domicile of State of Uttar Pradesh in which there is a provision of one time grant of Rs
50,000/ - for each cadet selected as a special incentive .
(6) KERALA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS — All male/female cadets irrespective of gender
and without any pre conditions to all Kerala state cadets who are admitted to OTA,NDA, IMA, Naval
Academy, Air force Academy, Armed Forces Medical College, RIMC Schools, as a consolation shall be
granted Rs 2,00,000/ - only and those who get admission to Military, Naval and Air force Nursing Schools
shall be granted as a consolation Rs 1,00,000/ -.
(7) BIHARI LAL MANDAKINI PRIZE — This is cash prize of Rs. 500.00 available for the best
BENGALI boy in each Course of the Academy. Application Forms are available with the Commandant,
National Defence Academy.
(8) ORISSA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS — These scholarships, one for the Army, one for
the Navy and the other for the Air Force o f the value of Rs. 80.00 each per month will be awarded by the
Government of Orissa to the cadets who are permanent residents of the State of ORISSA. Two of these
scholarships will be awarded on the basis of merit -cum-means of the cadets whose parent‘s or guardian‘s
income does not exceed Rs. 5,000/ - per annum and the other one will be given to the best cadet irrespective
of his parent‘s or guardian‘s income.
S.No State Government Amount Eligibility
(9) West Bengal
(i) The cadet must be
*Income Initial Lu mp sum
grant -parent must be
Scholarship per semester Low Middle High
5000/ - 3750/ 2500/ -
1800/ - 1350/ - 900/- (i) The cadet must be Indian Citizen and the
cadet and/or his of/or permanently domiciled
in the State of West Bengal.
(ii) The Cadet is not in rec eipt of any other
financial assistance / grant from the Govt. of
India and/or the State Government or any
other authority excepting scholarship or
stipend received on merit. Table Income group
Low - up to Rs. 9000/ -pm
Middle - Rs. 9001/ - to Rs. 18000/ -pm
High - Above 18000/ -pm
(10) Goa Rs. 1000/ - per month during the period of training
(subject to a maximum of 24 months or duration of the
course whichever is less) & one time outfit allowance of
Rs. 12,000/ - (i) The income limit of the cadet's
parent/g uardian shall not exceed Rs. 15,000/ -
pm (Rs. 1,80,000/ - per annum).
(ii) The income limit of those belonging to
SC/ST/OBC should not exceed Rs. 37,500/ -
per month (Rs. 4,50,000/ - per annum).
(iii) He should not be receiving financial
assistance/ freeship from any other source.
(11) Nagaland Rs. 1,00,000/ - onetime payment Should be domicile of Nagaland State.
(12) Manipur Rs. 1,00,000/ - onetime payment Should be domicile of Manipur State.
(13) Arunachal
Pradesh Scholarship Rs.1,000/ - pm One time
outfi t
Allowance Rs. 12,000/ - Should be domicile of Arunachal Pradesh
State.
(14) Gujarat Scholarship Rs. 6,000/ - per annum To the ward of Serving/Ex -servicemen (incl
Ex/Serving Officer) of Native/Domicile of
Gujarat.
(15) Uttarakhand
(a) Pocket Money Rs. 250/ - pm for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is paid to father/guardian of
cadets (Ex -Servicemen/Widow, through respective Zilla Sainik Kalyan Officers.)
(b) Cash Award of Rs. 50,000/ - for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is paid to father/guardian of
cadets thr ough Directorate of Higher Education, Haldwani.
(16) Punjab Rs. 1,00,000/ -(one time payment) Should be domicile of Punjab State.
(17) State Govt.
Sikkim Rs.1.5 lakhs for all Offrs entry
schemes Award for successful candidates of Sikkim
for all Officer‘s entry schemes.
(18) Fg Officer Anuj Nanchal Memorial Scholarship. Rs. 1500/ - (One time payment) – Second best all round
Air Force cadet of VI term
(19) Pilot Officer Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship. Pilot Officer Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial
Schol arship. Rs. 1500/ - (One time payment). Best all round Air Force cadet at the time of Passing Out of
VI term.
(20) HIMACHAL PRADESH GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP — Four scholarships will be
awarded to cadets from HIMACHAL PRADESH. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per month
during the first two years of training and Rs. 48.00 per month during the third year of training. These
scholarships will be available to those cadets whose parent‘s income is below Rs. 500.00 per month. No
cadet in receipt of financ ial assistance from the Government will be eligible for this scholarship.
(21) TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP —The Government of Tamil Nadu has
instituted at NDA one scholarship per course of the value of Rs. 30/ - per month plus an outfit allowance of
Rs. 400/ - (one only during the entire period of cadet‘s training) to be awarded to a cadet belonging to the
State of TAMIL NADU whose parent‘s/guardian‘s monthly income does not exceed Rs. 500/ -. The
application by an eligible cadet can be made to the Comman dant, National Defence Academy on their arrival.
In addition to the existing Scholarships, Directorate of Ex -Servicemen Welfare, Chennai under
Tamil Nadu Government has sanctioned a onetime grant of Rs.1,00,000/ - (Rupees One Lakh Only) to the
eligible chi ldren of Ex -Servicemen who join NDA/IMA/Naval or Air Force Academy as Permanent
Commissioned Officers.
(22) KARNATAKA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS — The Govt. of Karnataka has awarded
scholarships to cadets from Karnataka State who join the National Defence Acad emy. The value of the
scholarship shall be Rs.1,500/ - (Rupees One Thousand Five Hundred only) per month and outfit allowance of
in first term Rs.18,000/ - per annum.
(23) ALBERT EKKA SCHOLARSHIP —The Government of Bihar has instituted at NDA 25 Merit
Schola rships at Rs. 50/ - per month for entire period of six terms at the NDA and Rs. 650/ - one time towards
clothing and equipment. The cadet awarded the above merit scholarship would not be eligible for any other
scholarship or financial assistance from the Gov ernment. The application by an eligible cadet can be made to
the Commandant, National Defence Academy on their arrival.
(24) FG OFFICER DV PINTOO MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP — Gp Capt. M Vashishta has instituted
3 scholarships of Rs. 125/ - each per month at NDA f or one term to be awarded to the first three cadets in the
order of merit on completion of their first semester till end of second term. The cadets in receipt of Govt.
Financial Assistance will not be eligible for the above scholarships. The application fo r eligible cadets can be
made to the Commandant, NDA on arrival.
(25) FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO WARDS OF EX -SERVICEMEN —MAHARASHTRA
STATE — The wards of Maharashtrian ex -service officers/men who are undergoing training as cadets at
NDA will be given Rs. 50,00 0/- as one time incentive.
The parents/guardians of the wards should submit their applications to their respective Zilla Sainik
Welfare Office along with the certificates obtained from the Academy. Terms and conditions governing these
scholarships are obt ainable from the Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla,
Pune – 411 023.
(26) AWARD OF FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO CANDIDATES OF HARYANA DOMICILE
UNDER TRAINING AT NDA — The Haryana State Govt. has declared a cash award of Rs. 1,00,000/ -
(Rupees on e lakh) to every individual who successfully completes the training at NDA/IMA/OTA and other
Defence Academies of National Status and domicile of State of Haryana.
(27) INCENTIVE GRANT TO CADETS DOMICILE OF UT, CHANDIGARH UNDER
TRAINING AT NDA — Chandigarh Administration has introduced the scheme for grant of one time
incentive of Rs. 1,00,000/ - (Rupees one lakh) to the cadets who are resident of UT, Chandigarh and joined
NDA.
(28) SCHOLARSHIP/GRANT FOR NCT DELHI — The cadets undergoing training at NDA and who
are bonafide residents of NCT Delhi will get a monthly grant of Rs 2000/ -. A bonafide resident would means
those cadets whose permanent home address recorded in the documents at the time of joining NDA is that of
National Capital Territory of Delhi ( a nd does not include NCR). This would be needed to be supported with
a copy of the residence proof (Aadhaar Card, Voter Identity Card, Service Records of their parent etc.)
5. Immediately after the selected candidates join the Academy, a preliminary examin ation will be held in the
following subjects:
(a) English;
(b) Mathematics;
(c) Science;
(d) Hindi.
The standard of the examination in the subjects at (a), (b) and (c) will not be higher than that of the Higher
Secondary Examination of an Indian Unive rsity or Board of Higher Secondary Education. The paper in the subject at
(d) is intended to test the standard attained by the candidate in Hindi at the time of joining the Academy.
Candidates are, therefore, advised not to neglect their studies after the competitive examination.
TRAINING
6. The selected candidates for the three services viz, Army, Navy and Air Force are given preliminary training
both academic and physical for a period of 3 years at the National Defence Academy which is an Inter -Service
Institution. The training during the first two and half years is common to the cadets of three wings. All the cadets on
passing out will be awarded degrees from Jawaharlal Nehru University Delhi as under: -
(a) Army Cadets - B.Sc/ B.Sc (Computer)/ B.A
(b) Naval C adets - B. Tech Degree*
(c) Air Force Cadets - B. Tech Degree* /B.Sc/B.Sc (Computer)
Note* : All the cadets undergoing B.Sc/B.SC(Computer)/BA Degree programme shall be awarded the degree
on the successful completion of Academics, Physical and Service Training at NDA. All the cadets
undergoing B Tech programme shall be awarded the B.Tech degree on the subsequent Pre Commissioning
Training Academies/ Institutions/ Ships/ Air Craft.
The selected candidates of the Naval Academy will be given preliminary training b oth academic and
physical, for a period of 04 years at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala. The cadets of 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme will
be awarded a B. Tech Degree on successful completion of training.
7. On passing out from the National Defence Academy, Army C adets go to the Indian Military Academy, Dehra
Dun, Naval Cadets to Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala and Air Force cadets and Ground Duty -Non Tech streams to
Air Force Academy, Hyderabad and Air Force cadets of Ground Duty –Tech stream to Air Force Technical College,
Bengaluru.
8. At the I.M.A, Army Cadets are known as Gentlemen/Lady Cadets and are given strenuous military training
for a period of one year aimed at turning them into officer capable of leading infantry Sub -units. On successful
completion of tra ining Gentlemen/Lady Cadets are granted Permanent Commission in the rank of Lt subject to being
medically fit in "SHAPE" one.
9. (a) The Naval cadets are selected for the Executive Branch of the Navy, on passing out from the
National Defence Academy and ar e given further training at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala for a period of one year
on successful completion of which they are promoted to the rank of Sub Lieutenants.
(b) Selected candidates for the Naval Academy under (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme) will be inducted as
Cadets for four year B.Tech course in Applied Electronics & Communication Engineering (for Executive Branch),
Mechanical Engineering (for Engineering Branch including Naval Architect specialization) or Electronics &
Communication Engineering ( for Electrical Branch) as per Naval requirements. On completion of the course, B. Tech
Degree will be awarded by Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU).
10. (a) Air Force Flying Branch Cadets receive flying training for a period of one and a half years. On
successful completion of one year of basic flying training (Pilots), they are granted Permanent Commission (on
probation) in the rank of Flying Officer, for a period of six months. Permanent Commission is then confirmed in
respect of those officers who succes sfully complete the flying training conversion course for pilots lasting for a period
of approximately six months..
(b) Air Force Ground Duties Branch Cadets are granted Permanent Commission (on probation) in the
rank of Flying Officer, for six months on successful completion of training at AFA. On successful completion of the
probationary period of approximately six months, the Permanent Commission is then confirmed.
TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICES
11. Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy
(a) Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training :-
Stipend to male/female Cadets during the entire duration of training in Service
academies i.e. during training period at IMA. Rs 56,100/ -p.m.*
(Starting pay in Level 10)
*On successful commissioning, the p ay in the Pay matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in first Cell
of Level 10 and the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service and arrears on account of
admissible allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be paid to cadets.
(b) Pay
(i) Rank Pay Level (in Rs.)
Lt to Maj Lt - Level 10 (56,100 – 1,77,500)/ -
Capt - Level 10 B (61,300 -1,93,900)/ -
Maj - Level 11 (69,400 – 2,07,200)/ -
Lt Col to Maj Gen Lt Col - Level 12A (1,21,200 – 2,12,400)/ -
Col - Level 13 (1,30,600 – 2,15,900)/ -
Brig - Level 13A (1,39,600 – 2,17,600)/ -
Maj Gen - Level 14 (1,44,200 – 2,18,200)/ -
Lt Gen (HAG Scale) Level 15 (1,82,200 – 2,24,100)/ -
Lt Gen (HAG+Scale) Level 16 (2,05,400 – 2,24,400)/ -
VCOAS/Army Cdr/
Lt Gen (NFSG) Level 1 7 (2,25,000/ -) (fixed)
COAS Level 18 (2,50,000/ -) (fixed)
(ii) MSP to the officer is as follows :-
Military Service Pay(MSP) to the officers from the rank
of Lt to Brig Rs 15,500 p.m. fixed
(iii) Flying Allowance : The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in th e Army Aviation Corps are entitled
to flying allowance at Rs 25,000/ - p.m.
(iv) Other allowance: -
Dearness Allowance Admissible at the same rates and under the same
conditions as are applicable to the civilian personnel from
time to time.
Para Allce Rs 10 ,500/ - pm
Para Reserve Allce Rs 2,625/ - pm
Para Jump Instructor Allce Rs 10,500/ - pm
Project Allce Rs 3,400/ - pm
Special Forces Allce Rs 25,000/ - pm
Technical Allce (Tier -I) Rs 3,000/ - pm
Technical Allce (Tier -II) Rs 4,500/ - pm
(v) Depending upon r ank and area of posting, officer posted to Field Areas will be eligible for
the following Field Area allowances: -
Level Highly Active Field
Area Allce Field Area Allce Modified Field
Area Allce
Officers Rs 16,900/ - pm Rs 10,500/ - pm Rs 6,300/ - pm
High A ltitude Allowance
Level Category -I Category -II Category -III
Officers Rs 3,400/ - pm Rs 5,300/ - pm Rs 25,000/ - pm
Counter Insurgency Allowance
Level Counter Insurgency
Allce in Peace Area Counter Insurgency
Allce in Field Area Counter Insurgency Allce
in Modified Field Area
Officers Rs 10,500/ - pm Rs 16,900/ - pm Rs 13,013/ - pm
And/or Risk and hardship Allces payable as per MoD letter No 8(3)/2017/D(Pay/Services) dt 21 Apr
2022.
(vi) Siachen Allowance Rs 42,500/ - per month.
(vii) Uniform allowance . Rs 20,000/ - per year.
(viii) Ration in Kind. In peace and Field areas
(ix) Transport Allowance (TPTA)
Pay Level Higher TPTA Cities
(Rs. Per month) Other Places
(Rs. Per month)
Officers Rs. 7200+DA thereon Rs. 3600+DA thereon
(x) Children Education A llowance . Rs. 2250/ - per month per child for two eldest surviving
only. CEA is admissible from Nursery to 12th Class.
(xi) Hostel Subsidy . Rs. 6,750/ - per month per child for two eldest surviving only. Hostel
Subsidy is admissible from Nursery to 12th Class.
(xii) The following monetary benefits are available to the Cadets (Direct)/NoKs in the event of
invalidment on medical grounds/death of a Cadet (Direct) due to causes attributable to or aggravated
by military training:
(I) IN CASE OF DISABLEMENT
(i) Monthly Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9,000/ - per month.
(ii) Ex-gratia disability award @ Rs. 16200/ - per month shall be payable in addition for
100% of disability during period of disablement subject to prorata reduction in case the
degree of disablement is less than 100% . No disability award shall be payable in cases
where the degree of disablement is less than 20%.
(iii) Constant Attendant Allowance (CAA) @ Rs 6750/ - per month for 100% disabled on
the recommendation of Invaliding Medical Board (IBM).
(II) IN CASE OF DEATH
(i) Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 12.5 lakhs to the NoK.
(ii) Monthly Ex -gratia amount of Rs. 9000/ - per month to the NoK.
Note : 1. The Ex -gratia awards to Cadets (Direct) / NoK, shall be sanctioned
purely on ex -gratia basis and the same shall not be treated as pension for any
purpose.
2. Dearness Relief at applicable rates shall be granted on monthly ex -gratia
as well as ex -gratia disability award.
12. (a) Army Group Insurance Fund provides insurance cover of Rs.15 lakh on payment of one time non -
refundable premium of R s. 7,200/ - (subject to revision from time to time) by cadets from the date of joining
for pre -commission training i.e. for 3 years. If a cadet is relegated an additional premium of Rs. 1,355/ -
(subject to revision from time to time) per relegated term wi ll be paid. For those who are invalidated out by
IMB on account of disability and not entitled to any pension will be provided Rs.15 lakhs for 100 per cent
disability. This will be proportionately reduced to Rs 3 lakhs for 20 per cent. However, for less than 20
percent disability, only an Ex -Gratia Grant of Rs. 50,000/ - for first two years of training and Rs. 1 lakh
during the third year of training will be paid. Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and due to the
diseases of pre -enrolment origin will not qualify for disability benefit and Ex -Gratia Grant. In addition,
cadets withdrawn on disciplinary grounds, expelled as undesirable or leaving the Academy voluntarily will
also not be eligible for disability benefits and Ex -Gratia. There is no savi ng component under the scheme.
(b) The Lady/Gentlemen Cadets during pre commission trg when in receipt of stipend are insured for
Rs. One Cr as applicable to officers of the regular Army. Subscription at the rate of Rs 10,000/ - will have to
be paid in adv ance on monthly basis by Lady/Gentlemen Cadets to become member under the AGI Scheme
as applicable to Regular Army officers. For those who are invalidated out by Invalidated Medical Board
(IMB) on account of disability and not entitled to any pension will be provided Rs 25 lakh for 100
percent disability. This will be proportionately reduced to Rs 5 lakh for 20 percent disability.
However, for less than 20 percent disability, an ex -gratia grant of Rs. 50,000/ - only will be paid. Disability
due to alcoholi sm, drug addiction and due to the diseases of pre -enrolment origin will not qualify for
disability benefit and Ex -Gratia Grant. In addition, Lady/Gentleman Cadets withdrawn on disciplinary
grounds, expelled as an undesirable or leaving the Academy voluntar ily will not be eligible for disability
benefits and Ex -Gratia.
13. PROMOTIONAL AVENUES:
S.No. Army Navy Air Force Minimum Reckonable
Commissioned Service
required for
Substantive Promotion
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
(a) Lieutenant Sub Lieutenant Flying Officer On Commission
(b) Captain Lieutenant Flight Lieutenant 02 Years
(c) Major Lt. Commander Squadron Leader 06 years
(d) Lieutenant Colonel Commander Wing Commander 13 years
(e) Colonel (Selection) Captain (Selection) Group Captain
(Selection) On Selection
(f) Colonel
(Time Scale) Captain
(Time Scale) Group Captain
(Time Scale) 26 years
(g) Brigadier Commodore Air Commodore On Selection
(h) Major General Rear Admiral Air Vice Marshal On Selection
(i) Lieutenant General Vice Admiral Air Marshal On Selection
(j) General Admiral Air Chief Marshal On Selection
14. RETIREMENT BENEFITS
Pension, gratuity and casualty pensionary award will be admissible in accordance with the rules in force from
time to time.
15. LEAVE
Leave will be admissible in accordance with the rules in force from time to time.
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and Published by the Controller of Publications, Delhi -110054.
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