Rules for Central Armed Police Forces Assistant Commandants Examination 2026 being conducted by UPSC.

REGD. No. D. L.-33004/99 The Gazette of India CG-DL-E-21022026-270395 EXTRAORDINARY PART I-Section 1 PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY No. 34] NEW DELHI, FRIDAY, FEBRUARY 20, 2026/PHALGUNA 1, 1947 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA: EXTRAORDINARY [PART I-SEC.1] MINISTRY OF HOME AFFAIRS NOTIFICATION New Delhi, the 20th February, 2026 Rules No. 45023/04/2026-PP.—The Rules for a competitive examination to be held by the Union Public Service Commission in 2026 for the purpose of filling vacancies of Assistant Commandants in Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) viz. Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and SashastraSeemaBal (SSB) are published for general information. 1. The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination will be specified in the Notice issued by the Commission. Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and the Economically Weaker Sections. 10% of the total vacancies will be reserved for Ex- Serviceman candidates. An Ex-serviceman candidate of SC/ST/OBC/EWS/UR category will be counted against the vacancies of the respective category. NOTE: In case the vacancy(ies) reserved for Ex-servicemen remain unfilled due to non-availability of eligible or qualified candidates, the same shall be filled by candidates from non-Ex-servicemen category. 2. The examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission in the manner prescribed in Appendix-I to these Rules.The dates on which and the places at which the examination will be held shall be fixed by the Commission. 3. No person who is not a citizen of India, except with the consent of the Central Government signified in writing, shall be appointed or employed under these Rules. Provided that nothing contained in these Rules shall debar the appointment, enrolment or employment of a subject of Nepal or Bhutan under these Rules. 4. Both Male and Female candidates will be eligible for this examination. 5. (a) A candidate must have attained the age of 20 years and must not have attained the age of 25 years on the 1st August, 2026 i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 2001 and not later than 1st August, 2006. (b) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable- (i) Upto a maximum of five (05) years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe; (ii) Upto a maximum of three (03) years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates; (iii) Upto a maximum of five (05) years for Civilian Central Government Servants in accordance with the existing instructions of the Central Government. Ex-servicemen will also be eligible for this relaxation. However the total relaxation claimed on account of Government Service will be limited to five (05) years. Note-I: Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other category of Para-5(b) above, viz. those coming under the category of Civilian Central Government Servants /Ex-servicemen will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the categories. Note-II: The term Ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as Ex-servicemen in the Ex- servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Service and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time and the instructions issued by the Government vide DoP&T's OM No.36012/3/ 2021-Estt. (Res.II) dated 27.02.2023, which provides, inter-alia, as under: Candidates working in the Armed Forces would become eligible for applying Civil posts only when he completes the prescribed period of Armed Forces Service within a year from the last date of receiving application in connection with Special Recruitment/Examination, etc., prescribed by the Competent Authority. PROVIDED, WHEN SELECTION PROCESS TAKES MORE THAN ONE (01) YEAR, FROM THE LAST DATE OF RECEIVING OF APPLICATION, THE CANDIDATE WILL NOT BE DECLARED INELIGIBLE UNDER EX-SERVICEMEN CATEGORY ONLY ON THE GROUND THAT HE HAS GOT HIMSELF RELEASED FROM ARMED FORCES AFTER ONE YEAR FROM THE LAST DATE OF RECEIVING OF APPLICATION. Such candidates are also required to be in possession of the prescribed certificate and the Undertaking as at Appendix- IV(A) and IV(B) of the Rules, by the closing date of the application as may be notified by the Commission in its Notice for the Examination. Note-III: The term “Civilian Central Government Servants" in Para 5(b) (iii) above will apply to persons who are defined as “Government Servants" in the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as Amended from time to time. Note IV: The age concession under Rule 5(b) (iii) will be admissible to Ex-servicemen i.e. a person who has served in any rank whether as combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the Indian Union and who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension. SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE RELAXED. Note-V: The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognized by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above. Note-VI:Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation / Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent Certificate as on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted. Note-VII:Candidates should also note that once date of birth has been submitted by them in the Application Form and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an examination, no change will be allowed subsequently (or at any other examination of the Commission) on any grounds whatsoever. 6. A candidate must hold a Bachelor's degree of a University incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess an equivalent qualification. Note-I: Candidates who have appeared at a examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission's examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination in the year 2026 will also be eligible for admission to the examination. However, all such candidates, who after qualifying on the result of the written part of the examination, are declared qualified by the Commission for Physical Standards Tests/ Physical Efficiency Tests will be required to produce proof of passing of the requisite qualifying examination within the time limit prescribed in Sub-Rules 9.1 and 9.2 of Rule15. Note-II: In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate who has not any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he/she has passed examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination. Note-III: Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognized by Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination. 7. Possession of NCC 'B' or 'C' Certificate will be a desirable qualification. These desirable qualifications will be given consideration at the time of Interview/Personality Test only. 8. A candidate who has been finally selected on the basis of an earlier examination to the post of Assistant Commandants in any of the Forces participating in the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination will not be eligible to appear at a subsequent examination for recruitment of Assistant Commandants in the participating Central Armed Police Forces. 9. Candidates must meet the prescribed Physical and Medical standards for admission to Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2026specified in Appendix-II of these Rules. 10. Candidates must pay the fee prescribed in the Commission's Notice. 11. All candidates in Government Service, whether in permanent or in temporary capacity or as work-charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under Public Enterprises will be required to submit an undertaking that they have informed in writing to their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their application will be liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled. 12. The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of a candidate and his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the examination shall be final. The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Written Examination, Physical Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests, Interview/ Personality Test and Medical Standard Tests will be purely provisional subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Written Examination, Physical Standard Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests, Interview / Personality Test and Medical Standard Tests, it is found that they do not fulfill any of eligibility conditions; their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission. 13. No candidate will be admitted to the examination unless he/she holds a certificate of admission from the Commission. The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission of the same. 14. (1) A Candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of:- (a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:- (i) Offering illegal gratification to; or (ii) Applying pressure on; or (iii) blackmailing or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or (b) impersonation; or (c) procuring impersonation by any person; or (d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with; or (e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photo/signature in the application form in place of actual photo/signature; or (f) making statements which are in correct or false or suppressing material information; or (g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely:- (i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or (ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination; or (iii) influencing the examiners; or (h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or (i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or (j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or (k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination; or (l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched-off mode) capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or (m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to take the examination; or (n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses; in addition to being liable to appropriate legal action as deemed fit under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair means) Act, 2024, as mended from time to time, the candidate shall be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period:- (i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them; (ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them; and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate Rules if already in service under Government; Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:- (i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and (ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed for this purpose, into consideration. (2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at the clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to appropriate legal action in terms of the clause (n) above as deemed fit under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair means) Act, 2024, as mended from time to time. 15. (1) Candidates who obtain such minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion shall be summoned for the Physical Standards Tests/ Physical Efficiency Tests to check whether they meet the Physical Standards specified in Appendix-II and Physical Efficiency prescribed in Rule 15(3) to these Rules. Intimation for the conduct of PST/PET and MST will be updated by the Nodal Authority(SSB) on its Recruitment website https://recruitment.ssb.gov.in.e-Admit cards will be sent online through the said website of the Nodal Authority and Intimation to the candidates will also be sent through their registered e- mail ID. Therefore, candidates may regularly check the website of the Nodal Authority and their mail box including SPAM folder in the mail box. However, non-receipt of e-mail due to any technical issue at the end of the candidate, the Commission or the Nodal Authority will not be responsible. (2) Provided that candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections or the Ex-servicemen may be summoned for the Physical Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests by the Commission by applying relaxed standards if the Commission is of the opinion that sufficient number of candidates from these categories are not likely to be summoned for the Physical Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests on the basis of the general standard in order to fill up the vacancies reserved for them. (3) Those candidate who meet the prescribed Physical Standards as specified in Appendix-II to these Rules, will be put through Physical Efficiency Test (PET) as indicated below:- PHYSICAL EFFICIENCY TEST (PET) +-----+---------------------+-------------------+----------------+ | | | Men | Women | +=====+=====================+===================+================+ | (a) | 100 Meter Race | In 16 Seconds | In 18 Seconds | +-----+---------------------+-------------------+----------------+ | (b) | 800 Meter Race | In 03 Min. 45 Sec.| In 4 Min. 45 Sec.| +-----+---------------------+-------------------+----------------+ | (c) | Long Jump* | 3.5 Meters (3 | 3.0 Meters (3 | | | | Chances) | Chances) | +-----+---------------------+-------------------+----------------+ | (d) | Shot Put (7.26 Kg) | 4.5 Meters (3 | ---------------| | | | Chances) | | +-----+---------------------+-------------------+----------------+ * Note: During long jump, if any part of the body of a candidate touches the starting line or finishing line of length 3 Mtrs for Female candidate and 3.5 Mtrs for Male candidate (both marking line are inclusive), it would be deemed as disqualification in long jump event. Candidate is required to jump and clear distance prescribed for his/her i.e. 3 Mtrs for Female and 3.5 Mtrs for Male Candidate. (4) Medical Standards Tests {consisting of Detailed Medical Examination (DME) & Review Medical Examination (RME), if required}, to check the standards specified in Appendix-II, will be conducted only in respect of candidates who have appeared in the Interview/ Personality Test. Candidates will either be declared "FIT" or "UNFIT" in the Medical Standard Tests. Those candidates who are declared "UNFIT" during Detailed Medical Examination (DME) will be allowed to undergo Review Medical Examination (RME), provided they give their written consent by appending their signature on the intimation indicating the reasons for being unfit. RME of candidates will be conducted in continuation of DME preferably on the next day of DME. (5) The Physical Standards Tests / Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests will be conducted under the supervision of a Nodal Authorityto be appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs. These tests will be conducted at various centers to be notified after the results of the Written Examination. (6) All candidates declared unfit during Detailed Medical Examination (DME) will submit their consent for RME in prescribed proforma duly signed by the candidate and the same should be submitted within 24 hours after he/she is informed of his/her unfitness in DME. (7) Candidates, who are declared qualified in the Physical Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests, will be called for the Interview/Personality Test to be conducted by the Commission. Further, the candidates appeared in the Interview/ Personality Test shall be required to undergo MST (Medical Standards Tests)/ RME (Review Medical Examination) as the Government or the appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe. Candidates, who are declared unfit during Detailed Medical Examination (DME) will be allowed to undergo Review Medical Examination (RME), provided they give their written consent by appending their signature on the intimation indicating the reasons for being unfit. The Interview/Personality Test will carry 150 marks. (8) On reporting of female candidates for PST (Physical Standard Test)/PET (Physical Efficiency Test), a self-declaration indicating about her pregnancy status shall be submitted. In case, if she declares that she is not pregnant then she may be allowed to participate in the PST/PET. In case of false declaration, all the risk for undergoing PST/PET will be of her own. If the female candidate declares that she is pregnant before PST/PET, then a confirmatory pregnancy test to be done and in case she is found to be pregnant, irrespective of duration of pregnancy, she may be declared temporarily unfit and her appointment shall be held in abeyance until the confinement is over. The vacancy against which a woman candidate was selected should be kept reserved for her. She will be re-examined for PST/PET six (06) weeks after the date of confinement was over, subject to the production of the medical certificate of fitness from a registered medical practitioner. If she is found fit in PST/PET & DME, she may be appointed to the post kept reserved for and allow the benefit of seniority in accordance with the instructions of the Government, as amended from time to time. In case female candidates are found negative for pregnancy, she may be allowed to participate in the PST/PET. It is further provided that the pregnancy and the temporary unfitness due to the same, will not be a bar for her to appear in the Interview/ Personality Test along with other candidates as per the PT Schedule finalized by the Commission and her absence from the Interview/ PT, will entail cancellation of her candidature for the CAPF (ACs) Examination, 2026. (9) Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile and Common Application Form (CAF): 9.1 A candidate who is willing to apply for Central Armed Police Forces (ACs) Examination, 2026 shall be required to apply online and submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth, category [viz. SC/ST/OBC/ EWS/Ex-Servicemen], educational qualification, preferences of Services/Forces etc. as may be sought by the Commission alongwith the Common Application Form (CAF). For detailed instructions for filling up the form, the Notice for Central Armed Police Forces (ACs) Examination, 2026 may be referred. The failure to provide the required information/documents alongwith Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile, Common Application Form (CAF) and Exam Specific Form will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination. Note: The candidates should also note that no addition/deletion/any changes are allowed in the Online Application Formin any circumstances once submitted.However, the Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify their Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. Please note that any changes made to the URN Profile will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated information will apply only to applications submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes and successfully re- locked the URN Profile. (9.2) The Commission shall provide a window of fifteen (15) days after the declaration of result of written part of Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2026. All the candidates who qualified for the Physical Standard Test (PST)/Physical Efficiency Test (PET) shall be required to mandatorily login to the portal (https://upsconline.nic.in ) during this period and shall be required to update their details/educational qualification status (whether appearing/appeared) alongwith proof of passing the requisite qualifying examination, and upload the relevant documents as proof of their claim, failing which, such candidates will not be allowed to participate in the further stages of this examination and no correspondence will be entertained by the Commission in this regard. Note-1:- In addition to the above Sub-Rule 9.2, the candidates (wherever applicable) are required to update the Correspondence/Permanent Postal Address, Higher Educational Qualification, Achievement in different fields (if any), Employment Details/Service Experience, Details of the Service allocated on the basis of earlier/previous Central Armed Police Forces (ACs) Examinations (if any), Preference of Forces for the current examination, Marital Status, Parental Details, Debarment information, Earlier Examination details, OBC/EWS Annexure (wherever applicable), socio-economic questionnaire, whichever is applicable and submit their Online Application Form. Note-2: Candidates who have uploaded the required documents/information at the time of filling of Common Application Form (CAF) and have no further information to update/fill at the time of updation window, are also required to loginmandatorily and finally submit the Online Application Form after verifying the details and print Application Form, which is required to be submitted at the time of PST/PET and also to generate the e-Summon letter/e- Admit card for the PT/Interview.Failure to update the information will render the candidates ineligible to participate in the further stages of the Examination. Note-3: The candidates are advised to regularly visit the Commission's website with regard to further updates. (10) The Interview/Personality Test would be conducted by a Board of competent and unbiased persons who will have before them a record of the candidate's curriculum vitae. The candidate will be asked questions both in his/her own field as well as matters of general interest to test his/her awareness and understanding. In broad terms, this will be an assessment of not only his/her mental caliber but also his/her social traits and integrity of character. The Board would broadly assess the candidate inter-alia in the following: (I) PHYSICAL MAKE-UP (a) Appearance (b) Bearing (c) Manners and Mannerism (II) GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, APTITUDE AND INTEREST (a) Ability to perceive, analyze and present facts and situation. (b) Work related aptitudes, like discipline, empathyetc. (c) Extra-curricular activities-participation in games, sports, debates etc. (III) DISPOSITION (a) Leadership, drive, determination, quick decision making etc. (b) Self-reliance. (c) Ability to face stress and crisis. (d) Courage-moral and physical. (IV) BEHAVIOURAL ASPECTS OF PERSONALITY (a) Inter-personal relations with superiors and subordinates. (b) Commitment to values, integrity, secular and national orientation. (11) The candidature of such candidates who do not qualify at the Physical Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests or Medical Standards Tests is liable for cancellation. 16. (1) After the interviewand receipt of the results of MST/RME from the Nodal Ministry, the candidates will be arranged by the Commission in the order of merit as disclosed by the aggregate marks finally awarded to each candidate in the Examination. The candidates who do not qualify the MST/RME will not be included in the final merit. Thereafter, the Commission shall, for the purpose of recommending candidates against unreserved vacancies, fix a qualifying mark (hereinafter referred to as general qualifying standard) with reference to the number of unreserved vacancies to be filled up on the basis of the Examination. For the purpose of recommending reserved category candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections and the Ex-servicemen against reserved vacancies, the Commission may relax the general qualifying standard with reference to number of reserved vacancies to be filled up in each of these categories on the basis of the examination. Provided that the candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes and the Economically Weaker Sections who have not availed themselves of any of the concessions or relaxations in the eligibility or the selection criteria, at any stage of the examination and who after taking into account the general qualifying standards are found fit for recommendation by the Commission shall not be recommended against the vacancies reserved for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes and the Economically Weaker Sections. However, this provision will not apply in case of Ex-serviceman candidates who will be counted towards 10% reservation irrespective of the merit/marks obtained. Further, any candidate who after Medical Standard Tests (MST) is found not to satisfy the requirements as per prescribed standards will not be appointed. (2) While making service allocation, the candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes and the Economically Weaker Sections recommended against unreserved vacancies may be adjusted against reserved vacancies by the Government if by this process they get a service of higher choice in the order of their preference. (3) The Commission may further lower the qualifying standards to take care of any shortfall of candidates for appointment against unreserved vacancies and any surplus of candidates against reserved vacancies arising out of the provisions of this rule, the Commission may make the recommendations in the matter prescribed in Sub-rules (4) and (5). (4) While recommending the candidates, the Commission shall, in the first instance, take into account the total number of vacancies in all categories. This total number of recommended candidates shall be reduced by the number of candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes and the Economically Weaker Sections who acquire the merit at or above the fixed general qualifying standard without availing themselves of any concession or relaxation in the eligibility or selection criteria in terms of the proviso to sub-rule (1). Alongwith this list of recommended candidate, the Commission shall also maintain a Consolidated Reserve List of candidates, which will include candidates from unreserved and reserved categories ranking in order of merit below the last recommended candidate under each category. The number of candidates in each of these categories will be equal to the number of reserved category candidates who were included in the first list without availing of any relaxation or concession in eligibility or selection criteria as per proviso to sub-rule (1). Amongst the reserved categories, the number of candidates from each of the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes and the Economically Weaker Sections categories in the reserve list will be equal to the respective number of vacancies reduced initially in each category. (5) The candidates recommended in terms of the provisions of Sub-rule (4), shall be allocated by the Government to the services and where certain vacancies still remain to be filled up, the Government may forward a requisition to the Commission requiring it to recommend, in order of merit from the reserve list, the same number of candidates as requisitioned for the purpose of the unfilled vacancies in each category. (6) The Consolidated Reserve List so maintained shall be treated as confidential till the process of recommendation(s) in terms of sub-rule (5) is finally concluded by the Commission. Note: Reserve list is not a waiting list to cater to vacancies arising out of other reasons such as candidates not turning up to join, being found medically unfit, left out on account of medical fitness for limited services, resignation or any other reasons. The Commission will not take into account such vacancies for release of Reserve list. 17. (1) 'Rounding Off Marks' and ‘Tie Breaking Principle':- The provisions relating to the rounding off of marks, wherever applicable, and the principles for resolving cases of tie in scores shall be as prescribed below: (A) RoundingOff Marks: Marks obtained by the candidates shall be roundedoff upto two decimal digits, at all stage(s) of the examination, by applying the standard rounding off principle, wherever applicable. Accordingly, while applying the Tie Breaking Principles, the rounded off marks up to two decimal digits shall be considered for resolving all tie cases. (B) Tie Breaking Principle: (i) If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing more marks in the written total will be ranked higher; (ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidate securing more marks in "Paper-I: General Ability & Intelligence" will be ranked higher; (iii) If the marks at (i) and (ii) above are also equal, the candidate senior in age will be ranked higher; and (iv) In cases where a tie persists even after applying the above tie breaking principles, it will be resolved at the discretion of the Commission. (2) The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding the result. 18. Success in the examination confers no right to allocation & appointment unless Government is satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that the candidate, having regard to his/her character and antecedents and certificates produced by him/her during the course of examination for the purpose of eligibility as well as claiming any kind of benefit for reservation is suitable in all respects including medical examination for allocation/appointment to the Service. The decision of the Government in this regard shall be final. 19. A candidate must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to interfere with the discharge of his/her duties as an officer of the service. A candidate, who after such medical examination as Government or the appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe, is found not to satisfy these requirements will not be appointed. Note: In order to prevent disappointment, candidates are advised to have themselves examined by a Civil Surgeon before applying for admission to the examination. Particulars of the nature of the Medical Tests to which candidates will be subjected before appointment and of the standard required are given in Appendix-II to these Rules. 20. Service allocation in respect of finally selected candidates will be made by a Nodal Authority to be appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs on the basis of merit and preference for Forces to be indicated by the candidates in the Online Application Form. Alongwith the Online Application Form, scanned documents in support of date of birth, category [viz., SC/ST/OBC {OBC Annexure (for OBC category only)}], EWS {EWS Annexure (for EWS category only)} and other requisite documents are required to be mandatorily submitted. Any delay in submission of the Online Application Form or documents in support beyond the prescribed date will not be allowed and will lead to cancellation of the candidature for the CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026. The Online Application Formand/or supporting documents sent through any mode other than the online mode, as may be made available by the UPSC on its website, will not be accepted. Note-1: The candidate is advised to be very careful while indicating preference for various Services/Forces. No request for additions/ alteration in the preferences indicated by a candidate in his/her application will be entertained by the Commission. The candidate is also advised to indicate all the Services/Forces in the order of preference in his/her Application Form for which he/she is eligible. In case he/she does not give any preference for any Services/Forces, it will be assumed that he/she has no specific preference for those Services/Forces. If he/she is not allotted to any one of the Services/Forces for which he/she has indicated preference, he/she shall be allotted to any of the remaining Services/Forces in which there are vacancies after allocation of all the candidates who can be allocated to Services/Forces in accordance with their preferences. 21.1 A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in case the particular caste to which the candidates belong is included in the list of reserved Communities issued by the Central Government. The candidates will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Sections reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and in possession of such eligibility certification. 21.2 The OBC candidates applying for CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026 must produce OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) certificate based on the income for the Financial Year (FY) 2024-25, 2023-24 and 2022-23 and issued on/after 01.04.2025 (after completion of FY 2024-25) but not later than the closing date of the application for Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2026. 21.3 If a candidate indicates in his/her Application Form for Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination that he/she belongs to Unreserved category but subsequently writes to the Commission to change his/her category to a reserved one, such request shall not be entertained by the Commission. Further, once a candidate has chosen a reserved category, no request shall be entertained for change to other reserved category viz. SC to ST, ST to SC, OBC to SC/ST or SC/ST to OBC, SC to EWS, EWS to SC, ST to EWS, EWS to ST, OBC to EWS, EWS to OBC.No reserved category candidates other than those who qualified each stage of the Examination on General Merit shall be allowed to change (on their request or as decided by the Commission/Government based on the documents submitted by them) their category from Reserved to Unreserved or claim the vacancies (Forces) for unreserved category after the declaration of final result by the Commission. In case where such candidates do not qualify on General Standard, their candidature shall be cancelled. While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases where there was a gap not more than 3 months between the issuance of a Government Notification enlisting a particular community in the list of any of the reserved Communities and the date of submission of the application by the candidates. In such cases the request of change of community from general to reserve may be considered by the Commission on merit. 22. Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for SC/ST/OBC/EWS/Ex-Servicemen must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/ Notice. They should also be in possession of all the requisite valid certificates in the prescribed format in support of their claim as stipulated in the Rules/Notice for such benefits, by the closing date of the application. A candidate of CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026 will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and is in possession of requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on the income for Financial Year (FY) 2024-25 and issued on/after 01.04.2025 (after completion of FY 2024-25) but not later than the closing date of the application for Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2026. 23. No person- (a) who has entered into or contracted a marriage with a person having a spouse living, or (b) who having a spouse living has entered into or contracted a marriage with any person shallbe eligible for appointment to the Post of Assistant Commandant in the Central Armed Police Forces. Provided that the Central Government may, if satisfied that such marriage is permissible under the personal law applicable to such person and the other party to the marriage and there are other grounds for so doing, exempt any person from the operation of this rule. Dr. SUDEEPTA GHOSH, Director (P&C) APPENDIX-I SCHEME AND SYLLABUS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANTCOMMANDANTS IN CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES (ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS) EXAMINATION (A) Scheme of Written Examination:- The written examination to be conducted by Union Public Service Commission will comprise two papers: (Paper I-2 Hours duration and Paper-II- 3 Hours duration) PAPER-I: GENERAL ABILITY ANDINTELLIGENCE -250 MARKS This paper will be of Objective Type (Multiple Choice Questions) in which the questions will be set in English as well as Hindi. PAPER-II: GENERAL STUDIES, ESSAY AND COMPREHENSION-200 MARKS In this paper candidates will be allowed the option of writing the Essay Component in English or Hindi, but the medium of Précis Writing, Comprehension Components and other communications/ Language Skills will be English only. NOTE-1: Candidates should ensure that in Paper-II they write the Answers only in the Medium allowed by the Commission for the different components as mentioned above. No credit will be given for answers written in a medium other than the one allowed in the Paper. NOTE-2: Candidates will be required to indicate the medium of writing the Essay Component in the Attendance List and on the Answer Book. No credit will be given for the Essay Component if the candidate indicates a medium on the Attendance List and on the Answer Book other than the one in which he/she has written the Essay. NOTE-3: There will be minimum qualifying marks separately in each Paper as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion. Paper-I will be evaluated first and evaluation of Paper-II will be done only of those candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I. NOTE-4. THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPER: (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, 1/3rd (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happen to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty forthat question. (B) SYLLABI OF THE WRITTEN PAPERS:- PAPER-I: GENERAL ABILITY AND INTELLIGENCE: The objective type questions with multiple choices in this paper will broadly cover the following areas: #1. GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY The questions will be designed to test the logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude including numerical ability and data interpretation. #2. GENERAL SCIENCE The questions will be set to test general awareness, scientific temper, comprehension and appreciation of scientific phenomena of everyday observation including new areas of importance like Information Technology, Biotechnology and Environmental Science. #3. CURRENT EVENTS OF NATIONAL AND INTERNATIONAL IMPORTANCE: The questions will test the candidates' awareness of current events of national and international importance in the broad areas of culture, music, arts, literature, sports, governance, societal and developmental issues, industry, business, globalization and interplay among nations. #4. INDIAN POLITY AND ECONOMY: The questions shall aim to test candidates' knowledge of the Country's political system and the Constitution of India, social systems and public administration, economic development in India, regional and international security issues and human rights, including its indicators. #5. HISTORY OF INDIA The questions will broadly cover the subject in its social, economic and political aspects. This shall also include the areas of growth of nationalism and freedom movement. #6. INDIAN AND WORLD GEOGRAPHY: The questions shall cover the physical, social and economic aspects of geography pertaining to India and the world. Paper-II: General Studies, Essay and Comprehension: Part A - Essay questions which are to be answered in long narrative form either in Hindi or English totaling 80 Marks. The indicative topics are modern Indian history especially of the freedom struggle, geography, polity and economy, knowledge of security and human rights issues, and analytical ability. Part B - Comprehension, précis writing, other communications/language skills- to be attempted in English only (Marks 120) – The topics are Comprehension passages, précis writing, developing counter arguments, simple grammar and other aspects of language testing. APPENDIX-II PHYSICAL AND MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR THE CANDIDATE FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANTCOMMANDANTS IN THE CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES APPENDIX-II (A) (1) PHYSICAL STANDARDS: The minimum requirements for the candidate are as follows: +-----------+-----------------------------------+----------------+ | | Men | Women | +===========+===================================+================+ | Height | 165 cm | 157 cm | +-----------+-----------------------------------+----------------+ | Chest | 81 cm (unexpanded) | Not applicable | | | (with 5 cm minimum expansion) | | +-----------+-----------------------------------+----------------+ | Weight | 50 kg. | 46 kg. | +-----------+-----------------------------------+----------------+ Note: The height and chest measurement of a male candidate and only height of female candidate will be measured correct to one decimal in centimeter. For example, height will be measured and recorded as 165.2 cms. Any candidate having height or chest measurement less than the prescribed minimum criteria as mentioned in Appendix-II(A) of Rules for the post will be disqualified. For example, if minimum height requirement is 165 cms then candidate having height 164.9 cms and less will be disqualified. Moreover, the weight should be as per the height and age as mentioned in Appendix-II (B). (2) MEDICAL STANDARDS: (a) Eye Sight: +---------------------+-------------------------------+-------------------------------+ | | Better eye | Worse eye | | | (corrected vision) | (corrected vision) | +=====================+===============================+===============================+ | Distant vision | 6/6 | 6/12 | | | OR | | | | 6/9 | 6/9 | +---------------------+-------------------------------+-------------------------------+ | Near Vision | N6 | N9 | | | (corrected) | (corrected) | +---------------------+-------------------------------+-------------------------------+ | | With Glasses/LASIK Surgery* | | +---------------------+-------------------------------+-------------------------------+ | Limits per: | Refractive | -4.00 D (including cylinder) Myopia | | | | +4.00 D (including cylinder) Hypermetropia | +---------------------+-------------------------------+-------------------------------+ | | Colour Perception-III (CP-III) by ISIHARA plates. | | +---------------------+-------------------------------+-------------------------------+ * LASIK surgery correction is permitted subject to prescribed criteria as below:- a) Age - 18-35 years b) Axial-length - 21-26 mm. c) Corneal-thickness 425 micron d) Pre LASIK error - 6 D e) Post-operative - Should be stable period refractive flap f) Interval - 06 months (post-operative period mandatory) (Candidate must have completed 06 months after LASIK surgery while considering for recruitment in CAPFs). (B) CARRYING ANGLE: Carrying angle should not be more than 15° for male and 20° for female. (C) EAR: (i)Candidate should not have any degree of deafness or persistent ear discharge. (ii)Candidate should not have any other condition (congenital or acquired) like atresia of the meatus, exostosis, neoplasm which is causing obstruction of ear passage and should not have history of recurrent earache, tinnitus and vertigo. (d) Nose: Candidates should not have DNS, atrophic rhinitis, tubercular ulceration, chronic sinusitis. (e) Neck: Candidate should not have enlarged lymph nodes, thyroid or others welling of neck, inability to extend the neck fully or any evidence of disease of spine or cervical vertebrae. (f) Teeth: Candidate must possess sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient mastication. Candidate should not have severe pyorrhea. (g) Venereal Disease: Candidate should not have active signs of clinical VD. (h) Chronic skin diseases: Candidate should not have chronic skin diseases like Leprosy,chronicdermatitis, extensive PityriasisVersicolor, psoriasis, SLE etc. General Standards: g) Speech should be without impediment i.e. no stammering. h) The candidate should not have any indication of chronic disease like TB, any type of arthritis, high blood pressure, Diabetes, Bronchial Asthma, any heart disease. i) Candidate should not have perceptible and visible glandular swelling anywhere in the body. j) Chest should be well formed, devoid of any abnormality like flat chest, Pigeon chest, with rickety rosary defects. Heart and lungs should be sound. k) Limbs, hands and feet should be well formed and fully developed and there shall be perfect motion of all joints. l) Should not have any old /mal united fracture of bones. m) There should be free and perfect movements of all the joints. n) Feet and toes should be well formed o) Should not have congenital malformation or defects. p) Should not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to an impaired constitution. q) Candidate should have no disease of the genito urinary tract. r) Candidate should have no inguinal, scrotal swelling, any type of Hernia. s) (Only for male) Both the testicles are in the scrotum and of normal size. t) The candidate must not have knock knees, flat foot, and varicose veins. u) They must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to interfere with the efficient performance of the duties. (3) Candidate should not suffer from TACHYCARDIA (more than 100 pulse rate per minute) or BRADYCARDIA (Less than 50 per minute). (4) Candidate should not suffer from Hernia, hemorrhoids, condylomata prolapse rectum. (5) Tattoo Clause: (a) Content: Being a secular country, the religious sentiments of our countrymen are to be respected and thus, tattoos depicting religious symbol or figures and the name, as followed in Indian Army are to be permitted. (b) Location: Tattoos marked on traditional sites of the body like inner aspect of forearm but only left forearm, being non saluting limb or dorsum of the hands are to be allowed. (c) Size: Size must be less than ¼ of the particular part (Elbow or Hand) of the body. Note: 1. Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniform guidelines issued by MHA UO dated 20.05.2015 for recruitment of GO's and NGO's in the CAPFs & AR and Review Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniforms guidelines for RME in CAPFs & ARS for GO's & NGO's vide MHA UO No.E-32012/ADG (Med)/DME&RME/ DA-1/2020 (Part File)/1166 dated 31.05.2021. 2. Candidates will either be declared "FIT" or "UNFIT" in the Medical Standard Tests. Those candidates who are declared 'UNFIT' in the Medical Standard Tests will be allowed to appear before the Review Medical Board preferably on the next day of Detailed Medical Examination. APPENDIX-II (B) A **MALE AVERAGE BODY WEIGHTS IN KILOGRAMS FOR DIFFERENT AGE GROUPS AND HEIGHTS** +-----------+----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+ | Height in | | Age in years | | | | CMS | 18-22 | 23-27 | 28-32 | 33-37 | +===========+================+================+================+================+ | 156 | 44-54 | 46-56 | 47-58 | 48-59 | | 158 | 45-55 | 47-57 | 48.5-59.5 | 49.5-60.5 | | 160 | 46-56 | 47.5-58.5 | 49.5-60.5 | 50.5-61.5 | | 162 | 47-58 | 49-60 | 50.5-61.5 | 52-63 | | 164 | 48-59 | 50-61 | 52-63.5 | 53-65 | | 166 | 49.5-60.5 | 51.5-62.5 | 53-65 | 54.5-66.5 | | 168 | 51-62 | 52.5-64.5 | 54.5-66.5 | 56-68 | | 170 | 52-64 | 54-66 | 56-68 | 57.5-70.5 | | 172 | 54-66 | 55.5-67.5 | 57-70 | 59-72 | | 174 | 55-67 | 57-70 | 59-72 | 61-74.5 | | 176 | 56.5-69 | 58.5-71.5 | 60.5-73.5 | 62-76 | | 178 | 57.5-70.5 | 60-73 | 61.5-75.5 | 63.5-77.5 | | 180 | 59-72 | 61-75 | 63.5-77.5 | 65.5-80 | | 182 | 61-74.5 | 62.5-76.5 | 65-79 | 66.5-81.5 | | 184 | 63-77 | 64.5-78.5 | 66.5-81.5 | 68.5-83.5 | | 186 | 63.5-77.5 | 65.5-80.5 | 68-83 | 70-86 | | 188 | 65-79 | 67.5-82.5 | 70-85.5 | 71.5-87.5 | | 190 | 66-81 | 68.5-83.5 | 70.5-86.5 | 72.5-88.5 | +-----------+----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+ **Female Average body Weights in Kilograms for Different Age Groups - Heights** +-----------+----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+ | Height in | | Age in years | | | | CMS | 18-22 | 23-27 | 28-32 | 33-37 | +===========+================+================+================+================+ | 148 | 34.5-42.5 | 37-45 | 38.5-47 | 39.5-48.5 | | 150 | 36.5-44.5 | 37.5-45.5 | 39-48 | 40.5-49.5 | | 153 | 38-46 | 39-48 | 41-50 | 42-51 | | 155 | 38.5-47.5 | 40-49 | 41.5-50.5 | 43-52.5 | | 158 | 40.5-49.5 | 42-51 | 43-53 | 44.5-54.5 | | 160 | 41.5-50.5 | 43-52.5 | 44-54 | 45.5-54.5 | | 163 | 43-52.5 | 44-54 | 46-56 | 47-57 | | 165 | 44-54 | 45.5-55.5 | 47-58 | 48.5-59.5 | | 168 | 45-55 | 47-57 | 48.5-59.5 | 49.5-60.5 | +-----------+----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+ • The body weights are given in this chart corresponding to only certain heights (in cms). In respect of height in between, the principle of 'Average' may be utilized for calculating body weights. • For calculating average weight beyond the heights tabulated, 0.71 Kg for every one cm of increase or decrease in height may be added or subtracted respectively. APPENDIX-III BRIEF PARTICULARS RELATING TO THE POST OF ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS TO WHICH RECRUITMENT IS MADE THROUGH CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES (ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS) EXAMINATION 1. Qualified candidates will be allocated to one of the participating Forces, mentioned in the Rules as Assistant Commandant and will be subject to the relevant Act of the Force. Appointments will be made on probation for a period of 2 years provided that this period may be extended if the officer on probation has not qualified for a confirmation by passing the prescribed departmental examinations. Repeated failures to pass the departmental examinations within a period of 3 years will involve loss of appointment or reversion to his/her substantive post, if any. 2. If in the opinion of Government, the work or conduct of an officer on probation is unsatisfactory or shows that he/she is unlikely to become an efficient Assistant Commandant, the Government may discharge him/her forthwith or may revert him/her to its substantive post, if any. 3. On the conclusion of his/her period of probation, Government may confirm the officer in his/her appointment or if his/her work or conduct has, in the opinion of Government, been unsatisfactory. Government may either discharge him/her from the service or may extend his/her period of probation for such further period as Government may think fit provided that in respect of appointment to temporary vacancies there will be no claim to confirmation. 4. If the power to make appointment in the service is delegated by Government to any officer, that officer may exercise any of the powers of Government described in the above clauses. 5. Scale of pay: (i) Assistant Commandant- Level 10 - Rs.56100-177500 junior scale (ii) Deputy Commandant - Level 11 - Rs.67700-208700 (iii) Second-In Command* - Level 12 - Rs.78800-209200 (iv) Commandant** Level 13 - Rs.118500-214100 (v) Deputy Inspector General- Level 13A- Rs.131100-216600 (vi) Inspector General Level 14 - Rs.144200-218200 *called AIG/Commandant in CISF. ** called AIG/Commandant (SG) in CISF 6. During the period of probation an officer will undergo training of professional courses in respective Academy of the Forces. In addition departmental examination if any, will also have to be passed during the period of probation. 7. In cases, he/she does not pass the end-of the course test at the Academy, the first increment will be postponed by one year from the date on which he/she would have drawn it or up to the date on which under the departmental regulations, the second increment accrues, whichever is earlier. 8. The seniority amongst direct recruits, inter-se shall be determined by adding together the marks obtained by them in Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission, and the Professional Training Course conducted in the Academy of the respective Force in the ratio of 50:50. NOTE-1. Probation Officers will start on the minimum of the scale of pay Assistant Commandant and will count their service for increments from the date of joining. NOTE-2. It should be clearly understood by the probationers that their appointment would be subject to any change in the constitution of the posts of Assistant Commandant in the Central Armed Police Forces which the Govt. of India may think proper to make from time to time and that they would have no claim for compensation in consequences of any such changes. NOTE-3. It should be clearly understood by the probationers that the promotion, if any, on their turn, will be available only to those who fulfill the conditions of eligibility criteria provided in the respective Recruitment Rules of the posts. NOTE-4.The probationers are required to execute a bond to the effect that he / she shall not resign the service before completion of scheduled period prescribed by the force from time to time. In case of resigning prior to completion of the scheduled period, he/she shall refund the cost of training fixed by the Forces from time to time. APPENDIX-IV APPENDIX -IV (A) PROFORMA OF CERTIFICATE FOR EMPLOYED OFFICIAL 1. It is informed that Shri/Kum./Smt. .......................................... working as ....................................(Unit/ Office) has applied for the post of .......................................... as advertised by..........................................(name of recruiting agency) vide Advt. No.......................................... dated .......................................... 2. I hereby, with the information available, certify in respect of Shri/ Kum./ Smt. .......................................... (Name) No.......................................... (Rank), follows :- i. He/ She will be completing the prescribed period of engagement of .......................................... Years (in words) for acquiring Ex-servicemen status, subject to fulfillment of other conditions, on .......................................... (date). Shri/Kum./Smt. ..........................................shall complete .......................................... years of service (in words) on the date of No Objection Certificate and .......................................... years of service (in words) at the time of leaving of military service. ii. He/She will be released on selection to the post. Commanding Officer (Signature) Place: Date: Office Seal APPENDIX -IV(B) FORM OF UNDERTAKING TO BE GIVEN BY CANDIDATES APPLYING FOR CIVIL POSTS UNDEREX-SERVICEMEN CATEGORY I understand that if selected on the basis of the recruitment/examination to which this application relates, my appointment will be subject to my producing documentary evidence to the satisfaction of Appointing Authority that I have been duly released/retired/discharged from the Armed Forces and that I am entitled to the benefits admissible to Ex-servicemen in terms of the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Central Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time. 2. I also understand that as per DoPT OM No.36034/1/2014-Estt.(Res.) dated 14.8.2014, if I apply for various vacancies before joining any civil employment, I can avail of the benefit of reservation as Ex-servicemen for any subsequent employment provided that to avail of this benefit, as soon as I join any civil employment, I should give self-declaration/undertaking to the concerned employer about date-wise details of application for various vacancies for which I had applied for before joining the initial civil employment, in respect of vacancies which are filled on direct recruitment and wherever reservation is applicable to the Ex-servicemen. Signature of the candidate Place: Date: ***** Uploaded by Dte. of Printing at Government of India Press, Ring Road, Mayapuri, New Delhi-110064 and Published by the Controller of Publications, Delhi-110054. Digitally signed by GORAKHA NATH GORAKHA NATH YADAVA YADAVA Date: 2026.02.21 11:53:30 +05'30'