Full Text
REGD. No. D. L.-33004/99
The Gazette of India
EXTRAORDINARY
PART 1—Section III
PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY
सं. 02] NEW DELHI, FRIDAY, JUNE 6, 2025/ JYAISTHA 16, 1947
No. 02]
*****
MINISTRY OF DEFENCE
( Department Of Military Affairs)
NOTIFICATION
New Delhi, the 28th May, 2025
RULES
S.L. No. B/59111/CDSE(II)-2025/Rtg. CDSE/16(1)/2025-DMA(AG-II).—Combined Defence Services
Examination (II), 2025 will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 14th September, 2025.
+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------+
| Name of the Course | Approximate No. of Vacancies |
| | (Refer Note-iii) |
+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------+
| (a) Indian Military Academy, Dehradun-161st (DE) | 100 [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ |
| Course Commencing in, July 2026. | Certificate (Army Wing) holders]. |
+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------+
| (b) Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala- Course | 26 [including 06 vacancies for NCC‘C’ Certificate |
| Commencing in July 2026. Executive Branch (General | (Naval Wing) holders and 02 for Hydro] |
| Service)/Hydro. | |
+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------+
| (c) Air Force Academy, Hyderabad-(Pre-Flying) Training | 32 [including 03 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ |
| Course Commencing in July 2026. i.e. 220 F (P) Course. | Certificate (Air Wing) holders through NCC Special |
| | Entry]. |
+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------+
NOTE (i) Indian Army publishes vacancies for Men and Women separately for various entries keeping into account
the operational and administrative needs of the Force as envisaged in the existing and future scenarios. Though the
vacancies for Men and Women categories as per SSC(NT) Courses are being notified through a common Notification
and tested through a common written examination for administrative purpose, SSC(NT) Men and SSC(NT) Women
are separate entries and the selection for both these categories is done separately but in gender pure manner as per
vacancies notified. THE PREPARATION OF WRITTEN RESULTS AND FINAL MERIT LISTS FOR SSC(NT)
MEN AND SSC(NT) WOMEN CATEGORIES WILL ALSO BE DONE SEPARATELY AS PER VACANCY
NOTIFIED.
NOTE (ii): The date of holding the examination as mentioned above may be changed, if so required, at the discretion
of the Commission.
NOTE (iii): The above number of vacancies is tentative and may be changed at any stage of selection process by
Services H.Q. as per organisation requirement at that point of time.
N.B. (I) (a): Candidates are required to specify clearly in respective column of the Online Application the Services for
which he/she wishes to be considered in the order of his/her preference. A male candidate is advised to indicate as
many preferences as he wishes to, subject to the condition given at paras (b) and (c) below, so that having regard to
his rank in the order of merit due consideration can be given to his preferences when making appointment.
(b) (i) : If a male candidate is competing for Short Service Commission (Army) only, he should indicate OTA as the
one and only choice. However, a male candidate competing for Short Service Commission Course at OTA as well as
Permanent Commission course at IMA, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy should indicate OTA as his
last preference, otherwise OTA will be deemed to be the last choice even if it is given a higher preference by the
candidate.
(b) (ii) : Women candidates are being considered only for Short Service Commission at OTA. They should indicate
OTA as the only choice.
(c) Candidates who desire to join Air Force Academy must indicate AFA as first choice, as they have to be
administered Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or and AF Medicals at Central Establishment/Institute of
Aviation Medicines. Choice exercised for AFA as second/third etc. will be treated as invalid.
(d) Candidates should note that, except as provided in N.B. (II) below, they will be considered for appointment to
those courses only for which they exercise their preference and for no other course(s).
(e) No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his/her application will be
entertained. Second choice will come for consideration only when the first choice is not offered to the candidate by
Services HQ. When first choice is offered and a candidate declines the same, his/her candidature will be cancelled for
all other choices for regular Commission.
N.B. (II) All Left over Finally Qualified candidates of IMA/INA/AFA courses who could not be inducted for the said
course due to the lack of vacancies, will be considered for SSC(NT), even if they have not indicated their choice for
this course, subject to the following conditions:-
i) Vacancies are available after issuing the Joining Letters to those candidates who had applied and qualified for
SSC(NT)
ii) Left over finally qualified candidates are willing to join SSC(NT)
iii) Such left over finally qualified and willing candidates will be placed in order of merit after the last candidate who
had opted SSC(NT), subject to number of vacancies available for SSC(NT). Accordingly, such Left over candidates
will be issued Joining Letter in order of merit.
NOTE 1 : NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders may also compete for
the vacancies in the Short Service Commission Course but since there is no reservation of vacancies for them in this
course, they will be treated as general candidates for the purpose of filling up vacancies in this course. Candidates
who have yet to pass NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing(Senior Division)/Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination, but are
otherwise eligible to compete for the reserved vacancies, may also apply but they will be required to submit the proof
of passing the NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing(Senior Division)/Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination to reach the
IHQ of MoD (Army)/Dte Gen of Rtg(Rtg A)CDSE Entry for SSC male candidates and SSC women entry for female
candidates West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of
MOD (Navy) DMPR, (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110 011 in case of Navy
first choice candidates and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No.
23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by 13 May 2026. To be eligible to
compete for reserved vacancies the candidates should have served for not less than 3 academic years in the Senior
Division Army Wing/ Air Wing/Naval Wing of National Cadet Corps and should not have been discharged from the
NCC for more than 24 months for IMA/Indian Naval Academy/Air Force Academy courses on the last date of receipt
of Application in the Commission’s Office.
NOTE 2: In the event of sufficient number of qualified NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing(Senior Division)/Air
Wing/Naval Wing) holders not becoming available on the results of the examination to fill all the vacancies reserved
for them in the Indian Military Academy Course/Air Force Academy Course/Indian Naval Academy Course, the
unfilled reserved vacancies shall be treated as unreserved and filled by general candidates. Admission to the above
courses will be made on the results of the written examination to be conducted by the Commission followed by
intelligence and personality test by the Services Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written examination.
The details regarding the (a) scheme, standard, syllabus of the examination, (b) Guidelines with regard to physical
standards for admission to the Academy and (c) Brief particulars of services etc. for candidates joining the Indian
Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy are given in
Appendices I, II and III respectively.
2. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:
(a) Nationality: A candidate must either be:-
(i) a Citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of
Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the
intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose favour a
certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of
Nepal.
A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination
provisionally subject to the necessary certificate being given to him/her by the Govt. before declaration of result by
UPSC.
(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status:
(i) For IMA—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 2002 and not later than 1st July, 2007
only are eligible.
(ii) For Indian Naval Academy—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 2002 and not later
than 1st July, 2007 only are eligible.
(iii) For Air Force Academy—
Age: 20 to 24 years as on 1st July, 2026 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd July, 2002 and not later than 1st July, 2006.
Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is
relaxable upto26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd July, 2000 and not later than 1st July, 2006 only are eligible.
Note : Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married
candidates aged 25 years or above are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided
married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises.
(iv) For Officers' Training Academy—(SSC Course for men) Unmarried male candidate born not earlier than 2nd
July 2001 and not later than 1st July, 2007 only are eligible.
(v) For Officers' Training Academy—(SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless
widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not
remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd July, 2001 and not later than 1st July,
2007.
NOTE: Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the purpose of their admission in
IMA/INA/AFA/OTA, Chennai courses and accordingly they are not eligible for these courses.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination
certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a
Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the
University or in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination certificate or an equivalent examination certificate.
These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the
examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal
Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted.
The expression Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the
alternative certificates mentioned above.
Sometimes the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate does not show the date of birth, or only
shows the age by completed years or completed years and months. In such cases a candidate must send in addition to
the self-attested/certified copy of Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate a self-attested/certified
copy of a certificate from the Headmaster/Principal of the Institution from where he/she passed the
Matriculation/Secondary School Examination showing the date of his/her birth or exact age as recorded in the
Admission Register of the Institution.
NOTE-1 : Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary School
Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the
Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
NOTE-2 : Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by them in the Online Application
Form and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will
be allowed subsequently or at a subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.
NOTE-3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth. If on verification at any
subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent
examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.
(c) Educational Qualifications:
(i) For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai— Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
(ii) For Indian Naval Academy—Degree in Engineering from recognized University/Institution.
(iii) For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or
Bachelor of Engineering.
Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of Graduation/ provisional certificates on the
date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.
Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the final year degree
examination can also apply and they will be required to submit proof of passing the degree examination at the time of
commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg ‘A’,CDSE Entry, West Block III, R. K. Puram, New
Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates, Naval HQ ‘DMPR’ (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’
Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and Dte of Personnel (Offrs),
Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610in case of Air Force first
choice candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature will stand cancelled:
(i) For admission to IMA on or before 1st July, 2026 Indian Naval Academy on or before 1st July, 2026 and Air Force
Academy on or before 13th May, 2026.
(ii) For admission to Officers' Training Academy, Chennai on or before 1st October, 2026.
Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by government as equivalent to
professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission to the examination.
In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed
in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he/she possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the
opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to the examination.
NOTE I: Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are studying in the
final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree Examination and
are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They
are required to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending
this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in
declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever. Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester degree
course are required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by University/College stating
that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the graduation degree examination by the specified date, failing
which their candidature will be cancelled.
Note II: Online Application Form:
A candidate who is willing to apply for Combined Defence Services Examination shall be required to apply on-line
and submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth,
educational qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission on Online Application Portal. For detailed
instructions for filling up the form, the Notice for Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2025 may be
referred. The failure to provide the required information/documents alongwith the Online Application Form will
entail cancellation of candidature for the examination.
NOTE III: Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of commission in the
Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be
cancelled.
NOTE IV: In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to learn flying, they
would be absorbed in the Navigation/Ground Duty (Non Tech) Branches of the IAF. This will be subject to
availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements.
(d) Physical Standards:
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Combined Defence Services
Examination (II), 2025 as per guidelines given in Appendix-II.
3. FEE :
Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay
a fee as prescribed in the Commission’s Examination Notice.
4. All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the Armed Forces,
Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organizations or in private employment should submit
their applications online direct to the Commission.
N.B.I: Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged
employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are, however,
required to inform their Head of Office/Department in writing that they have applied for the Examination.
N.B.II: Candidates serving in the Armed Forces are required to inform their Commanding Officer in writing that they
have applied for this examination. They are also required to submit NOC in this regard at the time of SSB interview.
Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding
permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable to be
rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.
5. The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the examination
shall be final.
The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission
to the examination. Their admission to all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to their
satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after any stage of the
examination, it is found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions their candidature will be cancelled by
the Commission.
Candidates are advised to keep ready the following documents in original alongwith their self- attested copies soon
after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination which is likely to be declared in the month of
October, 2025 for submission to the Army HQ/Naval HQ/Air HQ as the case may be:
(1) Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or its equivalent showing date of birth
(2) Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/Marks sheet showing clearly having passed degree examination and
eligible for award of degree.
In the first instance all qualified candidates eligible for SSB interview will carry their original
Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate as also their Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/Marks
sheet with them while going to the Services Selection Centres for SSB interview. Candidates who have not yet
qualified the final year Degree examination must carry with them a certificate in original from the Principal of the
College/Institution stating that the candidate has appeared/is appearing at the final year Degree examination.
Candidates who do not carry the above certificates with them while going to the Services Selection Centres shall not
be allowed to appear for the SSB interview. No relaxation for production of the above certificates in original at the
selection Centre is allowed, and candidates who do not carry with them any of these certificates in original will not be
permitted to appear for their SSB test and interview and they will be sent back home at their own expense.
7. (1) If any of their claims is found to be incorrect/false/fraud/fabricated they may render themselves liable to
disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of the following provisions:
A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of:—
(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely :—
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photos/signature in the application form in place of actual photo/signature.
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely :-
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means;
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination;
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott
examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the
examination; or
(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode),pager or any electronic equipment
or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any
other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched off mode) capable of being used as a
communication device during the examination; or
(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to
take the examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the
foregoing clauses;
in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination held
under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :-
(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;
and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service under Government.
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:—
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate may wish to make in
that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed for this purpose, into
consideration.
(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in committing or
abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at Clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to action in terms of
the Clause (n).
8. The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per age and educational
qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by the candidates.
The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the
information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility
conditions.
Candidates must ensure that their e-mail IDs given in their applications are valid and active.
9. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE ARMY/NAVAL/AIR HEAD QUARTERS.
All communications to the Army Headquarters should invariably contain the following particulars.
1. Name and year of the examination.
2. Application ID
3. Roll Number (if received)
4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters)
5. Complete Postal Address as given in the application with telephone number, if any.
6. VALID AND ACTIVE E-MAIL ID/ Mobile Number
N.B. (i) Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to.
N.B. (ii) If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has been held and it does not
give his/her full name and Roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be taken thereon.
N.B. (iii) Candidates recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection Board who have
changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their application for the examination should immediately
after announcement of the result of the written part of the examination notify the changed address, along with an
unstamped self-addressed envelope, also to IHQ of MoD (Army)/Dte Gen of Rtg (Rtg A)CDSE Entry Section for
males and SSC Women Entry Section for women candidates, West Block-III, Ground Floor, Wing 1, Rama Krishna
Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of MOD(Navy) DMPR (OI&R
Section), Room No. 204, 'C' Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates, and Dte
of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610in case
of Air Force first choice candidates. Failure to comply with this instruction will deprive the candidate of any claim to
consideration in the event of his/her not receiving the summon letter for interview by the Services Selection Board.
For all queries regarding allotment of centres, date of SSB interview, merit list, Joining Instructions, and any other
relevant information regarding selection process, please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in in case of
candidates having IMA or OTA as their first choice, IHQ of MOD (NAVY)DMPR (OI&R Section), Room No. 204,
'C' Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in the case of candidates having Navy as first choice and Dte of
Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in the
case of candidates having Air Force as first choice.
Candidates are requested to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to them in the call up letter for
interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be considered in very genuine circumstances and that too if it
is administratively convenient for which Army headquarters/Naval HQ /Air Headquarter will be the sole deciding
authority. Such requests should be sent to Selection Centre/SSB from where the call for SSB interview has been
received. Navy candidates can download their call letters from the naval website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in or send
email at officer@navy.gov.inthree weeks after publication of results.
N.B. In case a candidate does not get the interview call for SSB interview for IMA by 2nd week of February, 2026 and
by 2nd week of May 2026 for OTA, he/she should write to IHQ of MoD(Army)/Rtg. CDSE Entry/SSC Women Entry
for Officers Training Academy, West Block-III, Ramakrishna Puram, New Delhi-110066 regarding non-receipt of the
call-up letter. For similar query by the Navy/Air Force candidates, having first choice as given ibid, should write to
Naval Hqrs. or Air Hqrs. as mentioned in N.B. III (in case of non-receipt of call by 4th week of February 2026.
10. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF
QUALIFIED CANDIDATES, ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO THE
TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES.
The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying
marks in the written examination as fixed by the Commission in their discretion. Candidates who are declared
successful in the written exam will be detailed for intelligence and personality test at the Service Selection Board
based on their preference by the respective service HQ. CANDIDATES WHO QUALIFY IN THE WRITTEN
EXAM AND GIVEN THEIR FIRST CHOICE AS ARMY (IMA/OTA) ARE REQUIRED TO REGISTER
THEMSELVES ON THE RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE WWW.JOININDIANARMY.NIC.IN IN
ORDER TO ENABLE THEM TO RECEIVE CALL UP INFORMATION FOR SSB INTERVIEW.THOSE
CANDIDATES WHO HAVE ALREADY REGISTERED ON THE RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE
ARE ADVISED NOT TO REGISTER AGAIN. The email ID registered with DG Recruiting website
i.e.www.joinindianarmy.nic.in and that given to UPSC must be same and unique to the applicant. Results of the test
conducted by Service Selection Board will hold good for all the courses [i.e. Indian Military Academy (DE) Course,
Dehradun, Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala Course, Air Force Academy (Pre-Flying) Course, Hyderabad and SSC
(NT) Course at OTA, Chennai] for which the candidate has qualified in the written exam, irrespective of the service
HQ conducting it. Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and intelligence Test has been
introduced at Service Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage one test on first day of reporting at
Selection Centres. Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests
and all those who fail to pass stage one, will be returned. Only those candidate who qualify at stage two will be
required to submit photocopy each of:- (i) Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii)
Bachelors Degree/Provisional Degree alongwith mark sheets of all the years/semesters in support of educational
qualification.
Candidates will appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there at their own risk and
will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which they
may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the Services Selection Board whether
due to the negligence of any person or otherwise. Candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect on the
form appended to the application.
To be acceptable, candidates should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i) written
examination and (ii) SSB test as fixed by the Commission and Service Selection Board respectively in their
discretion. The candidates will be placed in the order of merit on the basis of the total marks secured by them in the
written examination and in the SSB tests. The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to
individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not enter into
correspondence with them regarding the result.
Success at the examination confers no right of admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval
Academy, Air Force Academy or the Officers' Training Academy as the case may be. The final selection will be made
in order of merit subject to medical fitness and suitability in all other respects and number of vacancies available.
Marks obtained by the candidates shall be rounded off up to two decimal digits, at all stage(s) of the
examination, by applying the standard rounding off principle, wherever applicable. Accordingly, while applying the
tie-breaking principles, the rounded-off marks upto two decimal digits shall be considered for resolving all tie cases.
(i) For IMA/INA/AFA : If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing more marks in
written total (“Paper-I : English, Paper-II : General Knowledge and Paper – III : Elementary Mathematics” put
together ) will be ranked higher;
For OTA : If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing more marks in written total
(“Paper-I : English and Paper-II : General Knowledge” put together) will be ranked higher;
(ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidate securing more marks in “Paper-II : General Knowledge” will
be ranked higher; and
(iii) If the marks at (i) and (ii) above are also equal, the candidate senior in age will be ranked higher.
NOTE 1: Every candidate for the Air Force and Naval Aviation is given Pilot Aptitude Test only once. The Grade
secured by him at the first test (CPSS and/or PABT) will therefore hold good for every subsequent interview at the
Air Force Selection Board. Those who have failed Indian Navy Selection Board/Computer Pilot Selection System
(CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test earlier and those who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air
Force.
TEST/INTERVIEW AT AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARDS FOR THOSE CANDIDATES WHO APPLY
FOR AIR FORCE THROUGH MORE THAN ONE SOURCE:- There are three modes of entry in F(P) course
CDSE/NCC/AFCAT. Candidates who fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) will be considered for other
preferred services only if it is found that they have applied through CDS Exam. Candidates who qualify in the written
examination for IMA(D.E) Course and/or Navy (S.E) Course and / or Air Force Academy course irrespective of
whether they have also qualified for SSC Course or not will be detailed for SSB test in February-March 2026 and
candidates who qualify for SSC Course only will be detailed for SSB tests in April to June 2026.
11. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSE:
Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy, Indian Military
Academy, Air Force Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai but were removed
there from on disciplinary ground will not be considered for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval
Academy, Air Force Academy or for grant of Short Service Commission in the Army.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the Indian Military Academy for lack of Officer-like
qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.
Candidates who were previously selected as Special Entry Naval Cadets but were withdrawn from the
National Defence Academy or from Naval Training Establishments for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be
eligible for admission to the Indian Navy.
Candidates who were withdrawn from Indian Military Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, NCC and
Graduate course for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be considered for grant of Short Service Commission in the
Army.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the NCC and Graduates’ course for lack of Officer-like
qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.
12. RESTRICTIONS ON MARRIAGE DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY OR
IN THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY OR OFFICERS TRAINING
ACADEMY, CHENNAI:
Candidates for the Indian Military Academy Course or Naval Academy Course or Indian Air Force Academy
Course or Officers' Training Academy, Chennai must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A
candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his/her application though successful at this or any subsequent
examination will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will be
liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him/her by the Government.
Candidate must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries
subsequent to the date of his application, though successful at the written examination or Service Selection Board
interview of medical examination will not be eligible for training. A candidate, who marries during his period, shall
be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the Government.
13. OTHER RESTRICTIONS DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY OR IN THE
INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY:
After admission to the Indian Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy,
candidates will not be considered for any other commission. They will also not be permitted to appear for any
interview or examination after they have been finally selected for training in the Indian Military Academy or the
Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy.
ANIL KUMAR CHHAPOLIA, Jt. Secy. (Estt & Coord)
APPENDIX-I
The scheme, standard and syllabus of the examination
A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
1. The Competitive examination comprises:
(a) Written examination as shown in para 2 below.
(b) Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part ‘B’ of this Appendix) of such candidates as may be
called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres.
2. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will
be as follows:
(a) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy:—
+-----------------------+------------+-----------------+
| Subject | Duration | Maximum |
| | | Marks |
+-----------------------+------------+-----------------+
| 1. English | 2 Hours | 100 |
+-----------------------+------------+-----------------+
| 2. General Knowledge | 2 Hours | 100 |
+-----------------------+------------+-----------------+
| 3. Elementary Mathematics | 2 Hours | 100 |
+-----------------------+------------+-----------------+
(b) For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy:—
+-----------------------+------------+-----------------+
| Subject | Duration | Maximum |
| | | Marks |
+-----------------------+------------+-----------------+
| 1. English | 2 Hours | 100 |
+-----------------------+------------+-----------------+
| 2. General Knowledge | 2 Hours | 100 |
+-----------------------+------------+-----------------+
The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for each
course i.e. the maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be 300, 300, 300 and
200 each for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’
Training Academy respectively.
3. The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers (Test Booklets)
of General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics will be set bilingually in Hindi as well as English.
4. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures
only will be set.
5. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a
scribe to write answers for them.
6. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
7. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They
should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
B. STANDARD AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
STANDARD
The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard of
papers in other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University.
SYLLABUS
ENGLISH (Code No. 11)
The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike
use of words.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Code No. 12)
General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation
and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special
study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on History of India and Geography of a
nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study.
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 13)
ARITHMETIC
Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations,
addition, substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time and
distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and
proportion, variation.
Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of divisibility by
2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M. Euclidean algorithm.
Logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables.
ALGEBRA
Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions
of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous
linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two
variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two
variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational
expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices.
TRIGONOMETRY
Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° <× < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90°
Simple trigonometric identities.
Use of trigonometric tables.
Simple cases of heights and distances.
GEOMETRY
Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel
lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of
medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square,
(viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci.
MENSURATION
Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up
into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular
cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.
STATISTICS
Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar
charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.
INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear
the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:-
(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception * Description Test
(PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These
tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO),
Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The marks are
allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the
test. In addition, marks for Conference are allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the
three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.
The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like
Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at
the SSB.
APPENDIX-II
GUIDELINES WITH REGARD TO PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR CANDIDATES FOR COMBINED
DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION
ARMY
MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION
FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO ARMY
1. Aim:
Aim of this literature is to familiarize the general population on medical standards for enrolment of candidates into
Army through various types of entries. This literature also serves the purpose of placing information in public domain
as per the policy of Information Commission under RTI Act -2005.
2. Introduction:
(a) The primary responsibility of the Armed Forces is defending territorial integrity of the nation. For this purpose
Armed Forces should always be prepared for war. Armed Forces personnel undergo rigorous training in preparation
for war. Armed Forces also assist civil authorities if required whenever the need arises like in the case of disasters.
To carry out such tasks Armed Forces requires candidates with robust mental and physical health. Such candidates
should also be capable of withstanding rigorous stress and strain of service conditions to perform their military duties
in adverse terrain and uncongenial climate incl sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical
facilities. A medically unfit individual due to disease/disability can not only drain precious resources but can also
jeopardize lives of other members of the team during operations. Therefore only medically fit candidates are selected
who emerge fit to be trained for war.
(b) The Armed Forces Medical Services are responsible for ensuring selection of ‘Medically Fit’ individuals into the
Armed Forces.
(c) All Armed Forces personnel regardless of occupational specialty, unit assignment, age or gender should have a
basic level of general ‘Medical fitness’ when inducted into service. This basic level of fitness can then be used as a
benchmark to train personnel for further physically demanding occupational specialties or unit assignments. This will
enhance deployable combat readiness.
(d) Medical examinations are carried out meticulously by Armed Forces Medical Services Medical Officers. These
Medical Officers are well oriented to specific working conditions of Armed Forces after undergoing basic military
training. Medical examinations are finalized by the Board of Medical Officers. The decision of the Medical Board is
final. In case of any doubt about any disease/disability/injury/genetic disorder etc noticed during enrolment/
commissioning, the benefit of doubt will be given to State.
Medical Standards.
3. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are general guidelines. They are not exhaustive in view of
the vast knowledge of disease. These standards are subject to change with advancement in the scientific knowledge
and change in working conditions of Armed Forces due to introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes will be
promulgated from time to time by policy letters by competent authorities. Medical Officers, Spl Medical Officers and
Medical Boards will take appropriate decisions based on following guidelines and principles.
4. To be deemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any
disease/syndrome/disability likely to interfere with the efficient performance of military duties in any terrain,
climate, season incl sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical aid. Candidate also
should be free of medical conditions which require frequent visit to medical facilities and use of any aid / drugs.
(a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health. There should be no evidence of weak
constitution, imperfect development of any system, any congenital deformities/ diseases/syndrome or
malformation.
(b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s anywhere on the body. No sinus/es or fistula/e
anywhere on the body.
(c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other disease/syndrome/disability of the skin.
(d) No hernia anywhere on the body.
(e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause significant disfigurement.
(f) No arterio-venous malformation anywhere in/on the body.
(g) No malformation of the head and face including asymmetry, deformity from fracture or depression of the
bones of the skull; or scars indicating old operative interference and malformation like sinuses and fistulae etc.
(h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and field of vision.
(j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears vestibule-cochlear system.
(k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology.
(l) No disease/disability/ congenital anomaly/syndrome of the bones or cartilages of the nose, or palate, nasal
polyps or disease of the naso-Pharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses. There should be no nasal deformity and
no features of chronic tonsillitis.
(m) No disease /syndrome/disability of the throat, palate tonsils or gums or any disease or injury affecting the
normal function of either mandibular joint.
(n) No disease /syndrome/disability of the heart and blood vessels inclcongenital, genetic, organic incl
hypertension, and conduction disorders.
(o) No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of this disease or any other disease
/syndrome/disability chronic disease of the lungs and chest including allergies /immunological conditions,
connective tissue disorders, musculoskeletal deformities of chest.
(p) No disease of the digestive system including any abnormality of the liver, pancreas incl endocrinal, congenital,
hereditary or genetic diseases /syndromes and disabilities.
(q) No diseases/syndrome/disability of any endocrinal system, reticuloendothelial system.
(r) No diseases/syndrome/disability of genito-urinary system including malformations, atrophy/hypertrophy of
any organ or gland.
(s) No active, latent or congenital venereal disease.
(t) No history or evidence of mental disease, epilepsy, incontinence of urine or enuresis.
(u) No disease/deformity/syndrome of musculo-skeletal system and joints incl skull, spine and limbs.
(v) There is no congenital or hereditary disease/ syndrome/disability.
5. Psychological examinations will be carried out during SSB selection procedure. However, any abnormal traits
noticed during medical examination will be a cause for rejection.
6. Based on the above mentioned guidelines usual medical conditions which lead to rejection are:-
(a) Musculo-skeletal deformities of spine, chest and pelvis, limbs e.g.scoliosis, torticollis, kyphosis, deformities
of vertebrae, ribs, sternum, clavicle, other bones of skeleton, mal-united fractures, deformed limbs, fingers,
toes and congenital deformities of spine.
(b) Deformities of Limbs: Deformed limbs, toes and fingers, deformed joints like cubitus valgus, cubitusvarus,
knock knees, bow legs, hyper mobile joints, amputated toes or fingers and shortened limbs.
(c) Vision and eye: Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, lesions of cornea, lens, retina, squint and ptosis.
(d) Hearing, ears, nose and throat: Sub standard hearing capability, lesions of pinna, tympanic membranes,
middle ear, deviated nasal septum, and congenital abnormalities of lips, palate, peri-auricular sinuses and
lymphadenitis/adenopathy of neck. Hearing capacity should be 610 cm for Conversational Voice and Forced
Whispering for each ear.
(e) Dental conditions:-
(i) Incipient pathological conditions of the jaws, which are known to be progressive or recurrent.
(ii) Significant jaw discrepancies between upper and lower jaw which may hamper efficient mastication
and/or speech will be a cause for rejection.
(iii) Symptomatic Temporo-Mandibular Joint clicking and tenderness. A mouth opening of less than 30 mm
measured at the incisal edges, Dislocation of the TMJ on wide opening.
(iv) All potentially cancerous conditions.
(v) Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of mouth opening.
(vi) Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal pockets and/or bleeding from
gums.
(vii) Loose teeth: More than two mobile teeth will render the candidate unfit.
(viii) Cosmetic or post-traumatic maxillofacial surgery/trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24 weeks from the
date of surgery/injury whichever is later.
(ix) If malocclusion of teeth is hampering efficient mastication, maintenance of oral hygiene or general
nutrition or performance of duties efficiently.
(f) Chest: Tuberculosis, or evidence of tuberculosis, lesions of lungs, heart, musculo skeletal lesions of chest wall.
(g) Abdomen and genitor-urinary system: Hernia, un-descended testis, varicocele, organomegaly, solitary kidney,
horseshoe kidney & cysts in the kidney/liver, Gall bladder stones, renal and ureteric stones, lesions/deformities
of urogenital organs, piles, sinuses and lymphadenitis/pathy.
(h) Nervous system: Tremors, speech impediment and imbalance.
(j) Skin: Vitiligo, haemangiomas, warts, corns, dermatitis, skin infections growths and hyperhydrosis.
7. Height and Weight: Height requirement varies as per the stream of entry. Weight should be proportionate to
height as per the chart given below:-
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| Age | Minimum | Age: 17 to 20 | Age: 20+01 day - 30 | Age: 30 + 01 day - 40 | Age: Above 40 |
| (yrs) | weight for | yrs | yrs | yrs | yrs |
| | all ages | | | | |
| Height | Weight | Weight (Kg) | Weight (Kg) | Weight (Kg) | Weight (Kg) |
| (cm) | (Kg) | | | | |
+========+=================+===============+=============================+=============================+================+
| 140 | 35.3 | 43.1 | 45.1 | 47.0 | 49.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 141 | 35.8 | 43.7 | 45.7 | 47.7 | 49.7 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 142 | 36.3 | 44.4 | 46.4 | 48.4 | 50.4 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 143 | 36.8 | 45.0 | 47.0 | 49.1 | 51.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 144 | 37.3 | 45.6 | 47.7 | 49.8 | 51.8 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 145 | 37.8 | 46.3 | 48.4 | 50.5 | 52.6 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 146 | 38.4 | 46.9 | 49.0 | 51.2 | 53.3 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 147 | 38.9 | 47.5 | 49.7 | 51.9 | 54.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 148 | 39.4 | 48.2 | 50.4 | 52.6 | 54.8 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 149 | 40.0 | 48.8 | 51.1 | 53.3 | 55.5 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 150 | 40.5 | 49.5 | 51.8 | 54.0 | 56.3 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 151 | 41.0 | 50.2 | 52.4 | 54.7 | 57.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 152 | 41.6 | 50.8 | 53.1 | 55.4 | 57.8 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 153 | 42.1 | 51.5 | 53.8 | 56.2 | 58.5 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 154 | 42.7 | 52.2 | 54.5 | 56.9 | 59.3 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 155 | 43.2 | 52.9 | 55.3 | 57.7 | 60.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 156 | 43.8 | 53.5 | 56.0 | 58.4 | 60.8 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 157 | 44.4 | 54.2 | 56.7 | 59.2 | 61.6 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 158 | 44.9 | 54.9 | 57.4 | 59.9 | 62.4 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 159 | 45.5 | 55.6 | 58.1 | 60.7 | 63.2 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 160 | 46.1 | 56.3 | 58.9 | 61.4 | 64.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 161 | 46.7 | 57.0 | 59.6 | 62.2 | 64.8 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 162 | 47.2 | 57.7 | 60.4 | 63.0 | 65.6 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 163 | 47.8 | 58.5 | 61.1 | 63.8 | 66.4 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 164 | 48.4 | 59.2 | 61.9 | 64.6 | 67.2 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 165 | 49.0 | 59.9 | 62.6 | 65.3 | 68.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 166 | 49.6 | 60.6 | 63.4 | 66.1 | 68.9 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 167 | 50.2 | 61.4 | 64.1 | 66.9 | 69.7 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 168 | 50.8 | 62.1 | 64.9 | 67.7 | 70.6 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 169 | 51.4 | 62.8 | 65.7 | 68.5 | 71.4 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 170 | 52.0 | 63.6 | 66.5 | 69.4 | 72.3 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 171 | 52.6 | 64.3 | 67.3 | 70.2 | 73.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 172 | 53.3 | 65.1 | 68.0 | 71.0 | 74.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 173 | 53.9 | 65.8 | 68.8 | 71.8 | 74.8 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 174 | 54.5 | 66.6 | 69.6 | 72.7 | 75.7 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 175 | 55.1 | 67.4 | 70.4 | 73.5 | 76.6 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 176 | 55.8 | 68.1 | 71.2 | 74.3 | 77.4 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 177 | 56.4 | 68.9 | 72.1 | 75.2 | 78.3 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 178 | 57.0 | 69.7 | 72.9 | 76.0 | 79.2 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 179 | 57.7 | 70.5 | 73.7 | 76.9 | 80.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 180 | 58.3 | 71.3 | 74.5 | 77.8 | 81.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 181 | 59.0 | 72.1 | 75.4 | 78.6 | 81.9 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 182 | 59.6 | 72.9 | 76.2 | 79.5 | 82.8 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 183 | 60.3 | 73.7 | 77.0 | 80.4 | 83.7 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 184 | 60.9 | 74.5 | 77.9 | 81.3 | 84.6 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 185 | 61.6 | 75.3 | 78.7 | 82.1 | 85.6 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 186 | 62.3 | 76.1 | 79.6 | 83.0 | 86.5 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 187 | 62.9 | 76.9 | 80.4 | 83.9 | 87.4 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 188 | 63.6 | 77.8 | 81.3 | 84.8 | 88.4 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 189 | 64.3 | 78.6 | 82.2 | 85.7 | 89.3 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 190 | 65.0 | 79.4 | 83.0 | 86.6 | 90.3 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 191 | 65.7 | 80.3 | 83.9 | 87.6 | 91.2 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 192 | 66.4 | 81.1 | 84.8 | 88.5 | 92.2 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 193 | 67.0 | 81.9 | 85.7 | 89.4 | 93.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 194 | 67.7 | 82.8 | 86.6 | 90.3 | 94.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 195 | 68.4 | 83.7 | 87.5 | 91.3 | 95.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 196 | 69.1 | 84.5 | 88.4 | 92.2 | 96.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 197 | 69.9 | 85.4 | 89.3 | 93.1 | 97.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 198 | 70.6 | 86.2 | 90.2 | 94.1 | 98.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 199 | 71.3 | 87.1 | 91.1 | 95.0 | 99.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 200 | 72.0 | 88.0 | 92.0 | 96.0 | 100.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 201 | 72.7 | 88.9 | 92.9 | 97.0 | 101.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 202 | 73.4 | 89.8 | 93.8 | 97.9 | 102.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 203 | 74.2 | 90.7 | 94.8 | 98.9 | 103.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 204 | 74.9 | 91.6 | 95.7 | 99.9 | 104.0 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 205 | 75.6 | 92.5 | 96.7 | 100.9 | 105.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 206 | 76.4 | 93.4 | 97.6 | 101.8 | 106.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 207 | 77.1 | 94.3 | 98.6 | 102.8 | 107.1 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 208 | 77.9 | 95.2 | 99.5 | 103.8 | 108.2 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 209 | 78.6 | 96.1 | 100.5 | 104.8 | 109.2 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 210 | 79.4 | 97.0 | 101.4 | 105.8 | 110.3 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
Notes:-
(a) The minimum and maximum weight for height will be standard for all categories of personnel. Candidates with
weight below the minimum specified will be accepted.
(b) Male candidates with weight higher than specified will be acceptable only in exceptional circumstances in case of
candidates with documented evidence of body building, wrestling, boxing or muscular build. In such cases, the
following criteria are to be met :-
(i) Body Mass Index should not be more than 25.
(ii) Waist Circumference should be less than 90 cm for males and 80 cm for females.
(iii) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal limits.
(c) The fitness can only be given by a Medical Specialist.
(d) The minimum acceptable height is 157 cms. However, relaxation in height is permissible to candidates holding
domicile of areas as mentioned below and talented sports male candidates:-
+-----------------+---------------------------------------------------+---------------------------------+
| Sl No | Category | Minimum Height for Male Candidates|
+=================+===================================================+=================================+
| (i) | Tribals from Ladhakh Region | 155 Cm |
+-----------------+---------------------------------------------------+---------------------------------+
| (ii) | Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshdweep and Minicoy | 155 Cm |
| | Islands | |
+-----------------+---------------------------------------------------+---------------------------------+
| (iii) | Gorkhas, Nepali, Assamese, Garhwali, Kumaoni and | 152 Cm |
| | Uttarakhand | |
+-----------------+---------------------------------------------------+---------------------------------+
| (iv) | Bhutan, Sikkim &North East Region | 152 Cm |
+-----------------+---------------------------------------------------+---------------------------------+
| (v) | Extra talented sports candidates | 155 Cm |
+-----------------+---------------------------------------------------+---------------------------------+
6. During the medical examination of candidates, the following principal points will be ensured:-
(a) The candidate is sufficiently intelligent.
(b) The hearing is good and that there is no sign of any disease of ear, nose or throat.
(c) Vision in either eye is up to the required standard. His/ her eyes are bright, clear and with no obvious squint
or abnormality. Movements of eye balls should be full and free in all directions.
(d) Speech is without impediment.
(e) There is no glandular swelling.
(f) Chest is well formed and that his/her heart and lungs are sound.
(g) Limbs of the candidates are well formed and fully developed.
(h) There is no evidence of hernia of any degree or form.
(j) There is free and perfect action of all the joints.
(k) Feet and toes are well formed.
(l) Absence of any congenital malformation or defects.
(m) He/she does not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to an impaired constitution.
(n) Presence of sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient mastication.
(p) Absence of any disease of the Genito-Urinary tract.
7. Major defects for rejection are as under:-
(a) Weak constitution, imperfect development, congenital malformation, muscular wasting.
(b) Malformation of the head including deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of the skull.
(c) Assessment of Scoliosis. Idiopathic Scoliosis upto 10 degrees for Lumbar Spine and 15 degrees of Dorsal
Spine will be acceptable provided.
(i) Individual is asymptomatic
(ii) No history of trauma to spine
(iii) No chest asymmetry/ shoulder imbalance or pelvic obliquity in the lumbar spine.
(iv) There is no neurological deficit
(v) No congenital anomaly of the spine
(vi) There is absence of syndromic features
(vii) ECG is normal
(viii) No deformity exists on full flexion of the spine
(ix) No restriction of range of movements
(x) No organic defect causing structural abnormality
(d) Skeletal deformity either hereditary or acquired and disease or impairment of function of bones or joints.
Note:- Rudimentary cervical rib causing no signs or symptoms is acceptable.
(e) Asymmetry of torso or limbs, abnormality of locomotion including amputation.
(f) Deformity of feet and toes.
(i) Hyperextensible Finger Joints. All candidates shall be thoroughly examined for hyper-extensible
finger joints. Any extension of fingers bending backwards beyond 90 degrees shall be considered hyper-extensible
and considered unfit. Other joints like Knee, Elbow, Spine and Thumb shall also be examined carefully for features of
hyper laxity/ hypermobility. Although the individual may not show features of hyper laxity in other joints, isolated
presentation of hyperextensibility of finger joints shall be considered unfit because of the various ailments that may
manifest later if such candidates are subjected to strenuous physical training as mentioned above.
(ii) Mallet Finger. Loss of extensor mechanism at the distal inter-phalangeal joint leads to Mallet finger. Chronic
mallet deformity can lead to secondary changes in the PIP and MCP joint which can result in compromised hand
function. Normal range of movement at DIP joints is 0-80 degree and PIP joint is 0-90 degrees in both flexion and
extension. In Mallet finger, candidate unable to extend/ straighten distal phalanx of fingers completely.
(aa) Candidates with mild condition i.e., less than 10 degrees of extension lag without any evidence
of trauma, pressure symptoms and any functional deficit should be declared Fit.
(ab) Candidates with fixed deformity of fingers will be declared Unfit.
(iii) Polydactyly. Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post-op. Can be declared fit if there is no bony
abnormality (X-Ray), wound is well healed and scar is supple and there is no evidence of neuroma or
clinical examination.
(iv) Simple Syndactyly. Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post op. Can be declared fit if there is no
bony abnormality (X-Ray), wound is well healed and scar is supple and webspace is satisfactory.
(v) Complex Syndactyly. Unfit
(vi) Polymazia. Candidates to be considered fit after 12 weeks of post operative period if there is no post
operative complication with a well healed surgical wound and no residual disease.
(vii) Hyperostosis Frontalis Interna. Will be considered fit in the absence of any other metabolic
abnormality.
(viii) Healed Fractures.
(aa) All intra-articular fractures especially of major joints (Shoulder, elbow, wrist, hip, knee and
ankle) with or without surgery, with or without implant shall be considered unfit.
(ab) All extra-articular fractures with post-operative implant insitu shall be considered unfit and will
be considered for fitness after minimum of 12 weeks of implant removal.
(ac) Nine (09) months will be the minimum duration for considering evaluation following extra
articular injuries of all long bones (both upper and lower limbs) post injury which have been
managed conservatively. Individual will be considered fit if there is:-
(i) No evidence of mal-alignment/mal-union
(ii) No neuro-vascular deficit
(iii) No soft tissue loss
(iv) No functional deficit
(v) No evidence of osteomyelitis/ sequestra formation
(ix) Cubitus Recurvatum. >10 degrees is Unfit
(x) Cubitus Valgus.
(aa) Measurement of Carrying Angle. The carrying angle at the elbow is assessed conventionally
with the elbow in full extension using a protractor goniometer to measure the axes from the
surface margin of the arm and forearm. However, variations in the development of the soft
tissues in the arm and forearm generally lead to inconsistencies in the measured results. So far,
there is no uniform method to measure the carrying angle of the elbow. However, measuring the
carrying angle of the elbow through identification of bony landmarks on the acromion, medial
and lateral epicondyles of the humerus, and the distal radial and ulnar styloid processes is
recommended. Carrying angle is measured by a manual goniometer with two drawing axes of the
arm and forearm. The axis of the arm is defined by the lateral border of the cranial surface of the
acromion to the midpoint of the lateral and medial epicondyles of the humerus. The axis of the
forearm is defined by the midpoint of the lateral and medial epicondyles of the humerus to the
midpoint of the distal radial and ulnar styloid processes.
(ab) Cubitus valgus should be primarily a clinical diagnosis. The suggested indications to perform a
radiographic evaluation include:-
(i) History of trauma
(ii) Scar around elbow
(iii) Asymmetry of angles
(iv) Distal neurovascular deficit
(v) Restricted range of motion
(vi) If deemed necessary by Orthopaedic Surgeon
(xi) Hyperextension at Elbow Joint. Individuals can have naturally hyperextended elbow. This condition
is not a medical problem, but can be a cause of fracture or chronic pain especially considering the
stress and strains military population is involved in. Also, the inability to return the elbow to within 10
degrees of the neutral position is impairment in the activities of daily living.
(aa) Measurement modality. Measured using a Goniometer
(ab) Normal elbow extension is 0 degrees. Up to 10 degrees of hyperextension is within normal limits
if the patient has no history of trauma to the joint. Anyone with hyperextension more than 10
degree should be unfit.
8. Eye.
(a) Deformity or morbid condition of the eye or eyelids that is liable for aggravation or recurrence.
(b) Manifest squint of any degree.
(c) Active trachoma or its complication or sequelae.
(d) Visual acuity below prescribed standards.
Notes:-
1. Visual standards for CDSE entry are as follows :-
+-------------------------------------------------------+-----------------+
| Criteria | CDSE |
+=======================================================+=================+
| Uncorrected Vision | 6/12 6/12 |
+-------------------------------------------------------+-----------------+
| Corrected Vision | 6/6 6/6 |
+-------------------------------------------------------+-----------------+
| Limits of Myopia | -1.0 D Sph |
+-------------------------------------------------------+-----------------+
| Limits of Hypermetropia | + 2.0D Cyl |
+-------------------------------------------------------+-----------------+
| Astigmatism (within limits of myopia and hypermetropia) | ±1.0 D Sph / Cyl|
+-------------------------------------------------------+-----------------+
| Binocular Vision | III |
+-------------------------------------------------------+-----------------+
| Colour Perception | CP Pass * |
+-------------------------------------------------------+-----------------+
* CP defect will be assessed by only Ishihara teat during SMB. However, Anomaloscope to be used during AMB/
RMB for confirmation, as applicable.
2. Kerato Refractive Surgery. Keratometry will be performed for candidates at SMB for detecting undeclared
refracto-corrective procedures like PRK/LASIK/SMILE, etc. Values for the same will be endorsed in SMB.
Candidates who have undergone any Refractory Surgery (PRK/LASIK/SMILE) can be considered fit in all branches
(except submarine, diving and MARCO cadre) subject to the following conditions:-
(a) Surgery should not have been carried out before 20 yrs of age.
(b) Uncomplicated surgery at least 12 months before examination (Certificate mentioning the type of refractive
surgery, date of surgery and pre-operative refractive error from concerned eye centre is to be produced by the
candidate at the time of recruitment medical examination).
Post LASIK Standards. Candidate will be considered Fit if Axial Length by IOL Master is equal to or less than
26 mm by IOL Master or A Scan and Central Corneal Thickness by is Pachymeter equal to or more than 450 microns
(c) Residual refraction less than or equal to +1.0 D Sph or Cyl, provided within the permissible limit for the category
applied for. However, for Pilot and Observer entries, the residual refraction should be nil.
(d) Pre-operative refractive error not more than +/- 6.0 D
(e) Normal retinal examination.
3. Kerato-Refractory Surgery (PRK, LASIK, SMILE) is not acceptable for special cadres such as submarine,
diving and MARCO. Candidates who have undergone Radial Keratotomy are permanently unfit for all branches.
(i) Ptosis. Candidate will be considered fit post-operative provided there is no recurrence one year after surgery,
visual axis is clear with normal visual fields and upper eyelid is 02 mm below the superior limbus. Candidates,
who have not undergone surgery for the condition, would be considered fit if they meet any of the following
criteria:-
(aa) Mild ptosis
(ab) Clear visual axis
(ac) Normal visual field
(ad) No sign of aberrant degeneration/ head tilt
(ii) Exotropia. Unfit
(iii) Anisocoria. If size difference between the pupils is >01mm, candidate will be considered unfit.
(iv) Heterochromia Iridum. Unfit
(v) Sphincter Tears. Can be considered fit is size difference between pupils is <01mm, pupillary reflexes are brisk
with no observed pathology in cornea, lens or retina.
(vi) Pseudophakia. Unfit
(vii) Lenticular Opacities. Any lenticular opacity causing visual deterioration, or is in the visual axis or is present
in an area of 07 mm around the pupils, which may cause glare phenomenon, should be considered Unfit. The
propensity of the opacities not to increase in size or number should also be a consideration when deciding
fitness. Small stationery lenticular opacities in the periphery like congenital blue dot cataract, not affecting the
visual axis/ visual field (should be less than 10 in number and central area of 04 mm to be clear).
(viii) Optic Nerve Drusen. Unfit
(ix) High Cup Disc Ratio. Candidates will be declared unfit if any of the following conditions exist:-
(aa) Inner eye symmetry in cup disc ratio is > 0.2.
(ab) Retinal Nerve Fibre Layer defect seen by RNFL analysis on OCT.
(ac) Visual field defect detected by Visual Field Analyser.
(x) Keratoconus. Unfit
(xi) Lattice.
(aa) The following lattice degenerations will render a candidate Unfit:-
(i) Single circumferential lattice extending more than two clock hours in either or both eyes.
(ii) Two circumferential lattices each more than one clock hour in extent in either or both eyes.
(iii) Radial lattices.
(iv) Any lattice with atrophic hole/ flap tears (Unlasered).
(v) Lattice degenerations posterior to equator.
(ab) Candidates with lattice degeneration will be considered Fit under the following conditions:-
(i) Single circumferential lattice without holes of less than two clock hours in either or both eyes.
(ii) Two circumferential lattices without holes each being less than one clock hour in extent in either
or both eyes.
(iii) Post Laser delimitation single circumferential lattice, without holes/ flap tear, less than two clock
hours extent in either or both eyes.
(iv) Post Laser delimitation two circumferential lattices, without holes/ flap tear, each being less than
one clock hour extent in either or both eyes.
9. Ear, Nose and Throat.
(a) Ear. History or recurrent ear ache, tinnitus or vertigo, impairment of hearing, disease of the external meatus
including atresia, exostosis or neoplasm which prevent a thorough examination of the drum, unhealed perforation of
the tympanic membrane, aural discharge or sign of acute or chronic suppurative otitis media, evidence of radical or
modified radical mastoid operation.
Notes:-
1. A candidate should be able to hear forced whisper at a distance of 610cms with each ear separately with back to the
examiner.
2. Otitis Media. Current Otitis Media of any type will entail rejection. Evidence of healed chronic otitis media in the
form of tympanosclerosis/ scarred tympanic membrane affecting less than 50% of Pars Tensa of tympanic membrane
will be assessed by ENT Specialist and will be acceptable if Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA) and Tympanometry are
normal. All cases of Tympanoplasty and Myringoplasty/Myringotomy for choronic Otitis Media will entail
permanent rejection.
(i) The fwg conditions would render a candidate Unfit:-
(aa) Residual perforation
(ab) Residual hearing loss on Free Field Hearing and/or PTA
(ac) Any other type of tympanoplasty (other than Type 1 Tympanoplasty) or middle ear surgery (including
ossiculoplasty, stapedotomy, canal wall down mastoidectomy, atticotomy, attico-antrostomy etc)
(ad) Any implanted hearing device (eg. cochlear implant, bone conduction implant, middle ear implants etc).
(b) Bony Growth of External Auditory Canal. Any candidate with clinically evident bony growth of external
auditory canal like exostosis, osteoma, fibrous dysplasia etc. will be declared Unfit. Assessment of operated cases will
be done after minimum period of 4 weeks. Post-surgeryhistopathology report and HRCT temporal bone will be
mandatory. If the histo-pathological report is suggestive of a neoplasia or HRCT temporal bone is suggestive of
partial removal or deep extension it would entail rejection.
(c) Nose. Disease of the bones or cartilages of the nose, marked nasal allergy, nasal polyps, atrophic rhinitis, disease
of the accessory sinuses and nasopharynx.
Septal Perforation. Nasal septal perforation can be anterior cartilaginous or posterior bony perforation. Any septal
perforation greater than 01 cm in the greatest dimension is a ground for rejection. A septal perforation which is
associated with nasal deformity, nasal crusting, epistaxis and granulation irrespective of the size is a ground for
rejection.
Nasal Polyposis. It is also known as Chronic Rhinosinusitis with polyposis (CRSwNP). Nasal polyposis is mostly
associated with allergy, asthma, sensitivity to NSAIDs and infection i.e. bacterial and fungal. Most of these patients
have high chances of recurrence and require long term management with nasal/ oral steroids and are unfit for
extremes of climate and temperature conditions. Any individual detected to have nasal polyposis on examination or
with history of having undergone surgery for nasal polyposis will be rejected.
(d) Throat. Disease of throat palate, tongue, tonsils, gums and disease or injury affecting the normal function of either
mandibular joints.
Note: Simple hypertrophy of the tonsils without associated history of attacks of tonsillitis is acceptable.
(e) Disease of the larynx and impediment of speech. Voice should be normal. Candidates with pronounced stammer
will not be accepted.
10. Dental Condition. It should be ensured that a sufficient number of natural and sound teeth are present for efficient
mastication.
(a) A candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points to be acceptable in order to assess the dental condition of an
individual. Dental points less than 14 are a cause of rejection. The dental points are allotted as under for teeth in good
opposition with corresponding teeth in the other jaw:-
(i) Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, 1st Premolar, 2nd Premolar and under developed third molar with 1 point
each.
(ii) 1st molar and 2nd molar and fully developed 3rd molar with 2 points each.
(iii) When all 32 teeth are present, there will be a total count of 22 or 20 pints according to whether the third molars
are well developed or not.
(b) The following teeth in good functional apposition must be present in each jaw:-
(i) Any 4 of the 6 anteriors.
(ii) Any 6 of the 10 posteriors.
All these teeth must be sound/ repairable.
(c) Candidates suffering from severe pyorrhea will be rejected. Where the state of pyorrhea is such that in the opinion
of the Dental Officer, it can be cured without extraction of teeth, the candidates may be accepted. A note about the
affected teeth is to be inserted by the Medical/ Dental Officer in the medical documents.
(d) Artificial dentures are not to be included while counting the dental points.
11. Neck.
(a) Enlarged glands, tubercular or due to other diseases in the neck or other parts of the body.
Note:- Scars of operations for the removal of tubercular glands are not a cause for rejection provided there has been
no active disease within the preceding five years and the chest is clinically and radiologically clear.
(b) Disease of the thyroid gland.
12. Chest. The following are criteria for rejection:-
(a) Deformity of chest, congenital or acquired.
(b) Expansion less than 5 cms.
(c) Significant bilateral/ unilateral Gynaecomastia in male. Candidates to be considered fit after 12 weeks op post
operative period if:
(i) There is a well healed surgical wound with no residual disease
(ii) No post operative complication.
(iii) Surgical scar should be sufficiently matured and unlikely to cause any problems during military training,
(iv) Normal general physical examination
(v) Endocrine workup is normal
13. Skin and Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI).
(a) Skin disease unless temporary or trivial.
(b) Scars which by their extent or position cause or are likely to cause disability/ or marked disfigurement.
(c) Hyperhydrosis - Palmar, plantar or axillary.
(d) Congenital, active or latent sexually transmitted diseases.
Note:- In cases with old healed scar over the groin or penis/ vagina suggestive of past STI, blood will be tested for
STI (Including HIV) to exclude latent Sexually Transmitted Disease.
14. Respiratory System.
(a) History of chronic cough or Bronchial Asthma.
(b) Evidence of pulmonary Tuberculosis.
(c) Evidence of diseases of bronchi, lungs or pleurae detected on radiological examination of the chest will
disqualify the candidate.
Note:- An X-Ray examination of the chest will be carried out under following circumstances:-
(i) On entry into the service as a cadet or direct entry.
(ii) At the time of grant of permanent commission in case of short service commissioned officer.
15. Cardio-Vascular System.
(a) Functional or organic disease of the heart or blood vessels, presence of murmurs or clicks on auscultation.
(b) Tachycardia (Pulse Rate persistently over 96/min at rest), bradycardia (Pulse Rate persistently below 40/ min at
rest), any abnormality of peripheral pulse.
(c) Blood Pressure. Candidate with Blood Pressure consistently greater than 140/90mm Hg will be rejected. All such
candidates shall undergo a 24 hour Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring (24 h ABPM) to differentiate between
white coat hypertension and persistent hypertension. Wherever feasible, candidates will be evaluated by a
Cardiologist at AMB. Those with normal 24 h ABPM and without any target organ damage can be considered fit after
evaluation by a cardiologist.
(d) Electrocardiogram (ECG). Any ECG abnormality detected at SMB will be a ground for rejection. Such
candidates will be evaluated by a cardiologist during AMB with echocardiography for structural abnormality and
stress test if deemed necessary. Benign ECG abnormalities like incomplete RBBB, T wave inversion in inferior leads,
T inversion in V1-V3 (persistent juvenile pattern), LVH by voltage criteria (due to thin chest wall) may exist without
any structural heart disease. Echocardiography should be performed in all such cases to rule out an underlying
structural heart disease and opinion of Senior Advisor (Medicine)/ Cardiologist should be obtained. If
echocardiography and stress tests (if indicated) are normal, the individual can be considered fit.
16. Abdomen.
(a) Evidence of any disease of the gastro-intestinal tract, enlargement of liver, gall bladder or spleen, tenderness on
abdominal palpation, evidence/ history of peptic ulcer or previous history of extensive abdominal surgery. All officer
entry candidates are to be subjected to the Ultra Sound Examination of the abdominal and pelvic organs for detecting
any abnormalities of the internal organs.
(b) Hyperbilirubinemia of any nature is Unfit except for Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia where genetic studies
confirm Gilbert’s Syndrome as the etiological factor meeting criteria fulfilled below:-
(i) Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia with Total Serum Bilirubin < 3mg/dl, normal transaminases, PT/INR and
Albumin.
(ii) HBs Ag and Anti HCV should be negative.
(iii) No abnormality on PBS, Reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase levels, (LDH), Vit B12 and Hb
electrophoresis.
(iv) Normal Ultrasonogram of the liver and FIBROSCAN.
(v) Diagnosis of Gilbert’s Syndrome by genetic analysis of UGT1A1 gene.
(c) Post-op Assessment. Post-op duration for assessment of fitness in common conditions:-
(i) Hernia. Those who have been operated for hernia may be declared fit provided:-
(aa) 24 weeks have elapsed since the operation for Anterior Abdominal Wall hernia. Documentary proof to
this effect is to be produced by the candidate.
(ab) General tone of the abdominal musculature is good.
(ac) There has been no recurrence of hernia or any complication connected with the operation.
(ii) Other Conditions. Those who have been operated for below mentioned conditions may be declared fit
provided:-
(aa) Open Cholecystectomy. 24 weeks (In the absence of Incisional Hernia)
(ab) Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. 08 weeks (Normal LFT, Normal histopathology).
(ac) Appendicectomy.
(i) Laparoscopic Appendectomy will be assessed for post operative fitness after a minimum period of
04 weeks. Candidates will be considered fit if:-
(aa) Post site scars have healed well
(ab) Scars are supple
(ac) Histo-pathological report of acute appendicitis is available
(ad) USG confirmation of absence of port site incisional hernia
(ii) Open Appendectomy with muscle split approach will be assessed for post op fitness after a
minimum period 12 weeks. Candidates will be considered fit if:-
(aa) Wound has healed well
(ab) Scar is supple and non-tender.
(ac) Histo-pathological report of acute appendicitis is available
(ad) USG confirmation of absence of surgical site incisional
(ad) Pilonidal Sinus. 12 weeks
(ae) Fistula-in-Ano, Anal Fissure and Grade IV Hemorrhoids.12 weeks post-op with satisfactory treatment and
recovery.
(af) Hydrocele and Varicocele. 08 weeks post-op with satisfactory treatment and recovery.
(ag) Urachal cyst. 08 weeks post-op with satisfactory treatment and absence of any remnant.
(d) Fistula in anus, anal fissures and Hemorrhoids unless satisfactory to treatment has been carried out.
(e) Agenesis of Gall Bladder. Will be considered fit in the absence of any other abnormality of the biliary tract.
MRCP will be done for all such cases.
17. Genito-Urinary System.
(a) Any evidence of disease of genital organs.
(b) Bilateral undescended testis, unilateral undescended testis retained in the inguinal canal or at the external
abdominal ring unless corrected by operation.
Note:- Absence of one testis is not a cause for rejection unless the testis has been removed on account of
disease or its absence has affected the physical or mental health of the candidate.
(c) Disease or malformation of the kidneys or urethra.
(d) Incontinence of urine and nocturnal enuresis.
(e) Any abnormality on examination of urine including albuminuria or glycosuria.
(f) The following are criteria for rejection:-
(aa) Renal Calculi. Irrespective of size, numbers, obstructive or non-obstructive. History of renal calculi
(History or radiological evidence) will render a candidate Unfit.
(ab) Calyecdasis
(ac) Bladder Diverticulum
(ad) Simple Renal Cyst. > 1.5Cm
18. Central Nervous System.
(a) Organic disease of Central Nervous System.
(b) Tremors.
(c) Candidates with history of fits and recurrent attacks of headache/ migraine will not be accepted.
19. Psychiatric Disorders. History or evidence of mental disease or nervous instability in the candidate or his family.
20. Lab Investigation (Hematology).
(a) Polycythemia. Hemoglobin more than 16.5g/dL in males and more than 16g/dL in females will be considered as
Polycythemia and deemed Unfit.
(b) Monocytosis. Absolute monocyte counts greater than 1000/cumm or more than or equal to 10% of total WBC
counts is to be deemed Unfit.
(c) Eosinophilia. Absolute eosinophil counts greater than or equal to 500/ cu mm is deemed Unfit.
21. Acceptable Defects on Entry. Candidates for the Navy with the following minor defects may be accepted. These
defects are however to be noted in the medical forms on entry.
(a) Knock Knees with a separation of less than 5 cm at the internal malleoli.
(b) Mild curvature of legs not affecting walking or running. Intercondylar distance should not be over 7 cm.
(c) Mild stammering not affecting expression.
(d) Mild degree of varicocele.
(e) Mild degree of varicose veins.
Note:- Remedial operations wherever required are to be performed prior to entry. No guarantee is given about
ultimate acceptance and it should be clearly understood by a candidate that the decision whether an operation is
desirable or necessary is one to be made by their private medical advisor. The Government will accept no liability
regarding the result of operation or any expenses incurred.
(f) Any other slight defect which produces no functional disability and which in the opinion of medical officer/
medical board will not interfere with the individual’s efficiency as an officer.
AIR FORCE
MEDICAL STANDARD AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION FOR OFFICER
ENTRIES INTO AIR FORCE
General Instructions
1. In this section, standardized guidelines for the physical assessment of candidates for commissioning through CDSE
into flying duty branches in the IAF are elaborated. The purpose of these guidelines is to lay down uniform physical
standards and to ensure that the candidates are free of health conditions that may hamper or limit their performance in
the respective branch. The guidelines enumerated in this section are meant to be applied in conjunction with the
standard methods of clinical examination.
2. All candidates during their induction should meet the basic physical fitness standards which will enable them to
proficiently undergo the training and the subsequent service in varied climatic and work environments. A candidate
will not be assessed physically fit unless the complete examination shows that he/ she is physically and mentally
capable of withstanding the severe physical and mental strain for prolonged periods. The requirements of medical
fitness are essentially the same for all branches, except for aircrew in whom the parameters for visual acuity,
anthropometry and certain other physical standards are more stringent.
3. The medical standards spelt out pertain to initial entry medical standards. Continuation of medical fitness during
training will be assessed during the periodic medical examinations held at AFA prior to commissioning. They are not
exhaustive, in view of the vast spectrum of diseases. These standards are subject to change with the advancement in
the scientific knowledge and change in working conditions of Armed Forces.
4. Laboratory and Radiological Investigations for Special Medical Board
(a) Hematology: Complete Haemogram (Haemoglobin estimation, Total Leucocyte Count with Differential
Leucocyte Count, Platelet Count).
(b) Hb Electrophoresis will be carried out in candidates for commissioning to exclude Haemoglobinopathies.
(c) Biochemistry: Liver function test (LFT), Renal Function Test (RFT), Blood glucose estimation (Fasting and
two hours after 75 g anhydrous glucose/82.5 g glucose monohydrate loading), Lipid profile.
(d) Urine Routine Examination (RE) and Microscopic Examination (ME).
(e) ECG.
(f) Radiology: -
(i) Radiograph Chest PA view in all candidates.
(ii) Radiograph Lumbosacral Spine: AP and Lateral views in all candidates.
(iii) In addition to the above radiographs, Cervical Spine - AP and Lateral views, Dorsal Spine - AP and
Lateral views will be carried out in all candidates being assessed for flying duties.
(iv) USG Abdomen and Pelvis.
(v) Any other additional investigation deemed necessary will be conducted during the Appeal stage.
General Physical Assessment
5. Every candidate, to be fit for the Air Force, must conform to the minimum standards laid down in the succeeding
paragraphs. The physical parameters should fall within the acceptable ranges and should be proportionate.
6. The residual effects of old fractures/ injuries are to be assessed for any functional limitation. If there is no effect on
function, the candidate can be assessed fit. Following categories should be meticulously assessed:
(a) Spine Injuries. Cases of old fractures of spine are unfit. Any residual deformity of spine or compression of a
vertebra will be cause for rejection.
(b) Nerve Injuries. Injuries involving the trunks of the larger nerves, resulting in loss of function, or neuroma
formation, which causes pain significant tingling, indicate unsuitability for employment in flying duties.
(c) Keloids. The presence of large or multiple keloids will be a cause for rejection.
(d) Surgical Scars. Minor well-healed scars for e.g as resulting from any superficial surgery do not, per se, indicate
unsuitability for employment. Extensive scarring of a limb or torso that may cause functional limitation or
unsightly appearance should be considered unfit.
(e) Birth Marks. Abnormal pigmentation in the form of hypo or hyper-pigmentation is not acceptable. Localized,
congenital mole/ naevus, however, is acceptable provided its size is <10 cm. Congenital multiple naevi or
vascular tumours that interfere with function or are exposed to constant irritation are not acceptable.
(f) Subcutaneous Swellings. Lipoma will be considered fit unless the lipoma is causing significant disfigurement/
functional impairment due to the size/ location. Neurofibroma, if single will be considered fit. Multiple
neurofibromas associated with significant Café-au-lait spots (more than 1.5 cm size or more than one in
number) will be considered unfit.
(g) Cervical Rib. Cervical rib without any neuro-vascular compromise will be accepted. Meticulous clinical
examination to rule out neuro-vascular compromise should be performed in such cases. This should be
documented in the Medical Board proceedings.
(h) Cranio-facial Deformities. Asymmetry of the face and head or uncorrected deformities of skull, face or
mandible which will interfere with proper fitting of oxygen mask, helmet or military headgear will be
considered unfit. Major deformities even after corrective surgery will be considered unfit.
(i) History relating to Operations. A candidate who has undergone an abdominal operation involving extensive
surgical intervention or partial/ total excision of any organ is, as a rule, unfit for service. Operation involving
the cranial vault with any residual bony defect will be unfit. Major thoracic operations will make the candidate
unfit.
Measurements and Physique
7. Chest Shape and Circumference. The chest should be well proportioned and well developed. Any chest
deformity likely to interfere with physical exertion during training and performance of military duties or adversely
impact military bearing or are associated with any cardio-pulmonary or musculoskeletal anomaly are to be considered
unfit. Minimum acceptable chest circumference in male candidates for commissioning is 77 cm. The chest expansion
must be at least 05 cm for all categories of candidates. For the purpose of documentation, any decimal fraction lower
than 0.5 cm will be ignored, 0.5 cm will be recorded as such and 0.6 cm and above will be recorded as 01 cm.
8. Height.
(a) Ground Duty Branches. The minimum height for entry into ground duty branches is as follows:
(i) Male – 157 cm.
(ii) Female - 152 cm.
Note 1:-In case of candidates of Lakshadweep ethnicity, the minimum acceptable height is reduced by 02 cm (155 cm
for males and 150 cm for females). For Gorkhas and individual belonging to North-Eastern regions of India and hilly
regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum acceptable height will be 05 cm less (152 cm for males and 147 cm for
females).
Note 2:- Candidates of North East and Hilly states ethnicity includes Gorkhas, Kumaonis, Garhwalis, Assamese and
those belonging to the states of Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura, Sikkim and
hilly areas of Uttarakhand.
(b) Flying Duty Branches. The minimum height (both male and female) for entry into flying duty branches is as
follows: -
(i) Pilots, Flight Test Engineers (FTE) and WSO of Su 30 MKI - 162 cm.
(ii) Officers and airmen who apply for aircrew duties, other than F(P), FTE duties and WSO of Su-30 MKI -
157 cm.
9. Sitting Height, Leg Length and Thigh Length. Acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting
height for such aircrew will be as under: -
(a) Sitting height Minimum - 81.5 cm
Maximum - 96.0 cm
(b) Leg Length Minimum - 99.0 cm
Maximum - 120.0 cm
(c) Thigh Length Maximum - 64.0 cm
10. Body Weight Parameters
(a) The acceptable weight range for candidates is given at Appendix A (Male candidates) to this guidelines.
Candidates outside the given weight range for their age and height will not be acceptable.
Appendix A
(Refer para 8 &10 )
WEIGHT FOR HEIGHT CHART: MALES (AT ENTRY)
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| Height | Minimum | Age at last | Age at last birthday | Age at last birthday | Age at last |
| (cm) | Weight (Kg) | birthday Below| 20 to 25 yrs | Above 25 yrs | birthday Above |
| | | 20 yrs | | | 25 yrs |
| | +---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| | | Maximum Weight(Kg)| Maximum Weight(Kg) | Maximum Weight(Kg) | Maximum |
| | | | | | Weight(Kg) |
+========+=================+===============+=============================+=============================+================+
| 152 | 40 | 53 | 55 | 58 | 58 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 153 | 40 | 54 | 56 | 59 | 59 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 154 | 40 | 55 | 57 | 59 | 59 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 155 | 41 | 55 | 58 | 60 | 60 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 156 | 41 | 56 | 58 | 61 | 61 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 157 | 42 | 57 | 59 | 62 | 62 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 158 | 42 | 57 | 60 | 62 | 62 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 159 | 43 | 58 | 61 | 63 | 63 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 160 | 44 | 59 | 61 | 64 | 64 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 161 | 44 | 60 | 62 | 65 | 65 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 162 | 45 | 60 | 63 | 66 | 66 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 163 | 45 | 61 | 64 | 66 | 66 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 164 | 46 | 62 | 65 | 67 | 67 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 165 | 46 | 63 | 65 | 68 | 68 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 166 | 47 | 63 | 66 | 69 | 69 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 167 | 47 | 64 | 67 | 70 | 70 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 168 | 48 | 65 | 68 | 71 | 71 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 169 | 49 | 66 | 69 | 71 | 71 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 170 | 49 | 66 | 69 | 72 | 72 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 171 | 50 | 67 | 70 | 73 | 73 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 172 | 50 | 68 | 71 | 74 | 74 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 173 | 51 | 69 | 72 | 75 | 75 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 174 | 51 | 70 | 73 | 76 | 76 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 175 | 52 | 70 | 74 | 77 | 77 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 176 | 53 | 71 | 74 | 77 | 77 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 177 | 53 | 72 | 75 | 78 | 78 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 178 | 54 | 73 | 76 | 79 | 79 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 179 | 54 | 74 | 77 | 80 | 80 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 180 | 55 | 75 | 78 | 81 | 81 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 181 | 56 | 75 | 79 | 82 | 82 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 182 | 56 | 76 | 79 | 83 | 83 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 183 | 57 | 77 | 80 | 84 | 84 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 184 | 58 | 78 | 81 | 85 | 85 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 185 | 58 | 79 | 82 | 86 | 86 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 186 | 59 | 80 | 83 | 86 | 86 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 187 | 59 | 80 | 84 | 87 | 87 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 188 | 60 | 81 | 85 | 88 | 88 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 189 | 61 | 82 | 86 | 89 | 89 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 190 | 61 | 83 | 87 | 90 | 90 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 191 | 62 | 84 | 88 | 91 | 91 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 192 | 63 | 85 | 88 | 92 | 92 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 193 | 63 | 86 | 89 | 93 | 93 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 194 | 64 | 87 | 90 | 94 | 94 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 195 | 65 | 87 | 91 | 95 | 95 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 196 | 65 | 88 | 92 | 96 | 96 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 197 | 66 | 89 | 93 | 97 | 97 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 198 | 67 | 90 | 94 | 98 | 98 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 199 | 67 | 91 | 95 | 99 | 99 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
| 200 | 68 | 92 | 96 | 100 | 100 |
+--------+-----------------+---------------+-----------------------------+-----------------------------+----------------+
Notes:-
(a) The minimum and maximum weight for height will be standard for all categories of personnel. Candidates with
weight below the minimum specified will be accepted.
(b) Male candidates with weight higher than specified will be acceptable only in exceptional circumstances in case of
candidates with documented evidence of body building, wrestling, boxing or muscular build. In such cases, the
following criteria are to be met :-
(i) Body Mass Index should not be more than 25.
(ii) Waist : Hip Ratio less than 0.9.
(iii) All biochemical metabolic parameters such as blood sugar Fasting and PP, blood urea, creatinine, cholesterol,
HbA1C%, etc are within normal limits.
(c) The fitness can only be given by a Medical Specialist.
11. Pulse. Persistent sinus tachycardia (> 100 bpm) as well as persistent sinus bradycardia (< 60 bpm) are unfit. In
case bradycardia is considered to be physiological, the candidate can be declared fit after evaluation by Medical
specialist/cardiologist.
12. Blood pressure. An individual with systolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 mmHg and/or diastolic
blood pressure greater than or equal to 90 mmHg shall be rejected.
13. Cardiac Murmurs. Evidence of organic cardiovascular disease will be cause for rejection. Diastolic murmurs are
invariably organic. Short systolic murmurs of ejection systolic nature and not associated with thrill and which
diminish on standing, especially if associated with a normal ECG and chest radiograph, most often functional.
14. ECG. Any ECG abnormality detected at SMB/Recruitment Medical Examination will be a ground for rejection.
Benign ECG abnormalities like incomplete RBBB, T wave inversion in inferior leads, T inversion in V1 to V3
(persistent juvenile pattern), LVH by voltage criteria (due to thin chest wall) may exist without any structural heart
disease. Echocardiography should be performed in all such cases to rule out an underlying structural heart disease and
opinion of Senior Advisor (Medicine)/Cardiologist should be obtained.
15. Congenital Cardiac Anomalies. All congenital cardiac anomalies will be declared unfit.
16. Cardiac surgery and interventions. Candidates with history of cardiac surgery/ intervention in the past will be
considered unfit.
Respiratory System
17. Pulmonary Tuberculosis. Any residual scarring in pulmonary parenchyma or pleura, as evidenced by a
demonstrable opacity on chest radiogram will be a ground for rejection. Old treated cases with no significant residual
abnormality can be accepted if the diagnosis and treatment was completed more than two years earlier.
18. Pleurisy with Effusion. Any evidence of pleural thickening will be a cause for rejection. At the time of appeal,
these cases will be subjected to detailed evaluation with appropriate investigations by Pulmonologist/Medical
Specialist.
19. Bronchitis. History of repeated attacks of cough/wheezing/bronchitis may be manifestations of chronic bronchitis
or other chronic pathology of the respiratory tract. Such cases will be assessed unfit and will be subjected to detailed
evaluation with appropriate investigations at the time of appeal by Pulmonologist/Medical Specialist.
20. Bronchial Asthma. History of repeated attacks of bronchial asthma/wheezing/ allergic rhinitis will be a cause for
rejection.
21. Radiographs of the Chest. Definite radiological evidence of disease of the lungs, mediastinum and pleurae are
criteria for declaring the candidate unfit.
22. Thoracic Surgery. Candidate with history of any major surgery of the thorax will be considered unfit.
Gastrointestinal System
23. Head to toe examination. Presence of any sign of liver cell failure (e.g. loss of hair, parotidomegaly, spider
naevi, gynaecomastia, testicular atrophy, flapping tremors etc) and any evidence of malabsorption (pallor, nail and
skin changes, angular cheilitis, pedal edema) will entail rejection.
24. Gastro-Duodenal Disabilities.Any past surgical procedure involving partial or total loss of an organ (other than
vestigial organs/gall bladder) will entail rejection.
25. Diseases of the Liver. If past history of jaundice is noted or any abnormality of the liver function is suspected,
full investigation is required for assessment. Candidates suffering from viral hepatitis or any other form of jaundice
will be rejected. Such candidates can be declared fit after a minimum period of 6 months has elapsed provided there is
full clinical recovery; HBV and HCV status are both negative and liver functions are within normal limits. History of
recurrent jaundice and hyperbilirubinemia of any nature is unfit.
26. Disease of the Spleen. Candidates who have undergone partial/ total splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of the
cause for operation.
27. Anterior abdominal wall hernia including femoral hernia. (i) Fit. After 24 weeks of surgery (open as well as
laparoscopic) provided there is no recurrence or post-op complications (ii) Unfit. (a) All current or operated cases of
incisional hernia (b) All cases of current anterior abdominal wall hernia.
Inguinal Hernia. (i) FIT. After 01 year of hernia repair surgery (open as well as laparoscopic) provided there is no
recurrence or post-op complications (ii) Unfit. All cases of current inguinal hernia
28. Abdominal Surgery. A candidate with well-healed scar post conventional abdominal surgery (except
appendicectomy through right iliac fossa incision, refer par 3.5.9 (b)) will be considered fit after 24 weeks provided
there is no potential for any recurrence of the underlying pathology, no evidence of incisional hernia and the condition
of the abdominal wall musculature is good.
29. Anorectal Conditions. The examiner should do a digital rectal examination and rule out haemorrhoids, sentinel
piles, anal skin tags, fissures, sinuses, fistulae, prolapsed rectal mass or polyps.
(a) Fit.
(i) After rectal surgery for polyps, haemorrhoids, fissure, fistula, ulcer or pilonidal sinus, provided there is
no residual/recurrent disease.
(aa) Anal Fissure, Hemorrhoids: After 12 weeks of surgery.
(ab) Pilonidal Sinus: After 12 weeks of surgery.
(b) Unfit.
(i) Rectal prolapse even after surgical correction.
(ii) Active anal fissure/External Skin tags.
(iii) Hemorrhoids (external or internal).
(iv) Anal Fistula.
(v) Anal or rectal polyp.
(vi) Anal stricture.
(vii) Fecal incontinence.
30. Ultrasonography of Abdomen
(a) Liver.
Fit.
(i) Normal echo-anatomy of the liver, CBD, IHBR, portal and hepatic veins with liver span not
exceeding 15 cm in the mid- clavicular line.
(ii) Solitary simple cyst (thin wall, anechoic) upto 2.5 cm diameter provided that the LFT is normal
and hydatid serology is negative.
(ii) Hepatic calcifications to be considered fit if solitary and less than 01 cm with no evidence of
active disease like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, hydatid disease or liver abscess based on relevant
clinical examinations and appropriate investigations.
Unfit.
(i) Hepatomegaly more than 15 cm in mid-clavicular line.
(ii) Fatty liver.
(aa) Grade 1 Fatty liver with abnormal LFT.
(ab) Grade 2 and 3 Fatty Liver.
(iii) Solitary cyst > 2.5 cm.
(iv) Solitary cyst of any size with thick walls, septations, papillary projections, calcifications
and debris.
(v) Multiple hepatic calcifications or cluster greater than 01 cm.
(vi) Multiple hepatic cysts of any size.
(vii) Any haemangioma irrespective of the size and location.
(viii) Portal vein thrombosis.
(ix) Evidence of portal hypertension (Portal Vein >13 mm, collaterals, ascites).
31. Gall Bladder.
(a) Fit.
(i) Normal echo-anatomy of the gall bladder.
(ii) Post Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. After eight weeks, provided LFT and histopathology are within
normal limits.
(iii) Post Open Cholecystectomy. After 24 weeks, provided LFT and histopathology are within normal
limits and in the absence of incisional hernia as confirmed on USG Abdomen.
(b) Unfit.
(i) Cholelithiasis or biliary sludge.
(ii) Choledocolithiasis.
(iii) Polyp of any size and number.
(iv) Choledochal cyst.
(v) Gall bladder mass.
(vi) Gall bladder wall thickness > 05 mm.
(vii) Septate gall bladder.
(viii) Persistently contracted gall bladder on repeat USG.
(ix) Incomplete Cholecystectomy.
(c) Non-visualized Gall Bladder on USG. Will be considered unfit. They will be considered fit during appeal, if
agenesis of gall bladder is confirmed on Magnetic Resonance Cholangio-Pancreatography (MRCP), in the
absence of any other abnormality of the biliary tract.
32. Spleen.
(a) Unfit.
(i) Spleen more than 13 cm in longitudinal axis (or if clinically palpable).
(ii) Any Space Occupying Lesion in the spleen.
(iii) Asplenia.
(iv) Candidates who have undergone partial/ total splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of the cause of operation.
33. Pancreas.
(a) Unfit
(i) Any structural abnormality.
(ii) Any Space Occupying Lesion/ Mass lesion.
(iii) Features of chronic pancreatitis (calcification, ductal abnormality, atrophy)
34. Peritoneal Cavity.
(a) Unfit.
(i) Ascites.
(ii) Solitary mesenteric or retroperitoneal lymph node > 01 cm. (Single retroperitoneal LN < 01 cm and
normal in architecture may be considered fit).
(iii) Two or more lymph nodes of any size
(iv) Any mass or cyst.
35. Major Abdominal Vasculature (Aorta/ IVC). Any structural abnormality, focal ectasia, aneurysm and calcification
will be considered as unfit.
36. Appendicectomy.
(a) Laparoscopic Appendicectomy will be assessed for post-operative fitness after a minimum period of four weeks.
Candidates will be considered fit if:-
(i) Post-operative site scars are well healed.
(ii) Scars are supple.
(iii) Histopathological report of appendix is available.
(iv) USG confirmation of absence of port site incisional hernia.
(b) Open Appendicectomy (appendicectomy through right iliac fossa incision only) will be assessed for post-op
fitness after a minimum period 12 weeks. Candidates will be considered fit, if :-
(i) Wound has healed well.
(ii) Scar is supple and non-tender.
(iii) Histopathological report of appendix is available.
(iv) USG confirmation of absence of surgical site incisional hernia.
Urogenital System
The fitness criteria to be followed are as follows:-
37. Undescended testis (UDT)/ Orchidectomy.
(a) Unfit.
(i) If the testis cannot be palpated (unilateral or bilateral) even after examination of the candidate in squatting
position.
(ii) Bilateral orchidectomy due to any cause such as trauma, torsion or infection is unfit.
(b) Fit.
(i) Operatively corrected UDT at least four weeks after surgery, provided after surgical correction, the testis is
normal in location and the wound has healed well.
(ii) Unilateral orchidectomy for benign cause, provided other testis is normal in size, fixation and location.
38. Atrophic Testis.
(a) Unfit. Bilateral atrophied testis.
(b) Fit. Unilateral atrophic testis for benign cause, provided other testis is normal in size, fixation and location.
39. Varicocele.
(a) Unfit. All grades of current varicocele.
(c) Fit. Post-operative cases of varicocele with no residual varicocele and no post-op complications or testicular
atrophy after eight weeks of surgery.
40. Hydrocele.
(a) Unfit. Current hydrocele on any side.
(b) Fit. Operated cases of hydrocele after eight weeks of surgery, if there are no post-op complications and wound
has healed well.
41. Epididymal Cyst/ Mass, Spermatocele.
(a) Unfit – Current presence of cyst / mass.
(b) Fit. After 08 Weeks of Post-operative well healed cases with no recurrence and only when benign on
histopathology report.
42. Epididymitis/ Orchitis.
(a) Unfit – Presence of current orchitis or epididymitis/ tuberculosis.
(b) Fit. After treatment, provided the condition has resolved completely.
43. Epispadias/ Hypospadias.
(a) Unfit – All are unfit, except glanular variety of hypospadias and epispadias, which is acceptable.
(b) Fit – Post-operative cases at least 08 weeks after successful surgery, provided recovery is complete and there
are no complications.
44. Penile Amputation. Any amputation will make the candidate unfit.
45. Phimosis.
(a) Unfit – Current phimosis, if tight enough to interfere with local hygiene and voiding and/ or associated with
Balanitis Xerotica Obliterans.
(b) Fit – Operated cases will be considered fit after 04 weeks of surgery, provided wound is fully healed and no
post-op complications are seen.
46. Meatal Stenosis
(a) Unfit – Current disease, if small enough to interfere with voiding.
(b) Fit – Mild disease not interfering with voiding and post-operative cases after a period of 04 weeks of surgery
with adequately healed wound and no Post Operative complications.
47. Stricture Urethra, Urethral Fistula. Any history of / current cases or post-op cases are unfit.
48. Sex reassignment surgery/ Intersex condition. Unfit
49. Nephrectomy. All cases, irrespective of the type of surgery (Simple/ radical/ donor/ partial/ RFA/ cryo-ablation)
are unfit.
50. Renal Transplant Recipients. Unfit
51. Urachal Cyst :08 Weeks (To be declared fit in the absence of any remnant)
52. Cases of Bladder diverticulum will be declared as Unfit.
53. Urine Examination.
(a) Proteinuria. Proteinuria will be a cause for rejection, unless it proves to be orthostatic.
(b) Glycosuria. When glycosuria is detected, a blood sugar examination (fasting and after 75 g glucose) and
glycosylated Hb is to be carried out, and fitness decided as per results. Renal glycosuria is not a cause for
rejection.
(c) Urinary Infections. When the candidate has history or evidence of urinary infection it will entail full renal
investigation. Persistent evidence of urinary infection will entail rejection.
(d) Haematuria. Candidates with history of haematuria will be subjected to full renal investigation.
54. Glomerulonephritis.
(a) Acute: In this condition there is a high rate of recovery in the acute phase, particularly in childhood. A candidate
who has made a complete recovery and has no proteinuria may be assessed fit, after a minimum period of one
year after full recovery.
(b) Chronic:- Candidate with chronic glomerulonephritis will be rejected.
55. Renal Calculi: Irrespective of size, numbers, obstructive or non-obstructive,history of renal calculi (history or
radiological evidence) will render a candidate Unfit.
56. Sexual Transmitted Diseases and Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV). Seropositive HIV status and/ or
evidence of STD will entail rejection.
57. Ultrasonography of the Abdomen - Urogenital System
58. Kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder
(a) Unfit
(i) Congenital structural abnormalities of kidneys or urinary tract
(aa) Unilateral renal agenesis.
(ab) Unilateral or bilateral hypoplastic/ contracted kidney of size less than 08 cm.
(ac) Malrotation of kidney.
(ad) Horseshoe kidney.
(ae) Ptosed kidney.
(af) Crossed fused/ ectopic kidney.
(ii) Simple single renal cyst of more than 1.5 cm size in one kidney.
(iii) Complex cyst/ polycystic disease/ multiple or bilateral cysts.
(iv) Renal/ ureteric/ vesical mass.
(v) Hydronephrosis or Hydroureteronephrosis.
(vi) Calculi - Renal/ Ureteric/ Vesical.
(vii) Calyectasis
(b) Fit
(i) Solitary, unilateral, simple renal cyst <1.5 cm provided the cyst is peripherally located, round/ oval, with
thin smooth wall and no loculations, with posterior enhancement, no debris, no septa and no solid
component.
Endocrine System.
59. Any history suggestive of endocrine disorders will be a cause for rejection.
60. Clinical Examination. Any clinical evidence of endocrine disease will be unfit.
61. All cases of thyroid swelling are unfit. Fitness of such cases will be decided during appeal medical board after
evaluation with appropriate investigations.
62. Candidates detected to have Diabetes Mellitus will be rejected. A candidate with a family history of Diabetes
Mellitus will be subjected to blood sugar (Fasting and after two hours of 75 g of anhydrous / 82.5 g monohydrate
Glucose load) and HbA1c evaluation, which will be recorded.
Dermatological System.
63. Relevant History and Examination. Candidates who give history of sexual exposure to a Commercial Sex
Worker (CSW) and have evidence of healed penile sore in the form of a scar must be declared permanently unfit,
even in absence of an overt STD, as these candidates are likely ‘repeaters’ with similar indulgent promiscuous
behavior.
64. Assessment of Diseases of the Skin. Acute non-exanthematous and non-communicable diseases, which
ordinarily run a temporary course, need not be a cause of rejection. Diseases of a trivial nature, and those, which do
not interfere with general health or cause incapacity, do not entail rejection.
65. Certain skin conditions are apt to become active and incapacitating under tropical conditions. An individual is
unsuitable for service if he has a definite history or signs of chronic or recurrent skin disease. Some of such conditions
are described below:-
66. Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis. Some amount of Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis is physiological, considering the
situation that recruits face during medical examination. However, candidates with significant Palmoplantar
Hyperhydrosis should be considered unfit.
67. Acne vulgaris Mild (Grade I) acne consisting of few comedones or papules, localized only to the face may be
acceptable. However, moderate to severe degree of acne (nodulocystic type with or without keloidal scarring) or
involving the back should be considered unfit.
68. Palmoplantar Keratoderma Any degree of palmoplantar keratoderma manifesting with hyperkeratotic and
fissured skin over the palms, soles and heels should be considered unfit.
69. Ichthyosis vulgaris Ichthyosis involving the upper and lower limbs, with evident dry, scaly, fissured skin should
be considered unfit. Mild xerosis (dry skin) could be considered fit.
70. Candidates having any keloid should be considered unfit.
71. Clinically evident onychomycosis of finger and toe-nails should be declared unfit, especially if associated with
nail dystrophy. Mild degree of distal discoloration involving single nail without any dystrophy may be acceptable.
72. Giant congenital melanocytic naevi, greater than 10 cm should be considered unfit, as there is a malignant
potential in such large sized naevi.
73. Single corns/ Warts/ Callosities will be considered fit, three months after successful treatment and no recurrence.
However, candidates with multiple warts/ corns/ callosities on palms and soles or diffuse palmoplantar mosaic warts,
large callosities on pressure areas of palms and soles should be rejected.
74. Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition known to relapse and/or recur and hence should be considered unfit.
75. Vitiligo. Those having vitiligo must be made unfit. On appeal, segmental vitiligo under the covered parts may be
accepted.
76. A history of chronic or recurrent episodes of skin infections will be cause for rejection. Folliculitis or sycosis
barbae from which there has been complete recovery may be considered fit.
77. Individuals who have chronic or frequently recurring episodes of a skin disease of a serious or incapacitating
nature e.g. eczema are to be assessed as permanently unfit and rejected.
78. Any sign of Leprosy will be a cause for rejection. All peripheral nerves should be examined for any thickness of
the nerves and any clinical evidence suggestive of leprosy is a ground for rejection.
79. Naevus depigmentosus and Beckers naevus may be considered fit. Intradermal naevus, vascular naevi are to be
made unfit.
80. Pityriasis Versicolor is to be made unfit. They can be made fit on appeal, if completely treated.
81. Any fungal infection of any part of the body will be unfit. They can be made fit on appeal, if completely treated.
82. Scrotal Eczema may be considered fit on recovery.
83. Canities (premature graying of hair) may be considered fit if mild in nature and no systemic association is seen.
84. Intertrigo may be considered fit on recovery.
85. All STDs are unfit.
86. Scabies may be considered fit only on recovery.
87. Alopecia areata single and small (<2 cm in diameter) lesion on scalp can be accepted. However if multiple,
involving other areas or having scarring, the candidate should be rejected.
88. Gynaecomastia: Candidates to be considered fit after 12 weeks of post-operative period if: -
(a) There is a well healed surgical wound with no residual disease.
(b) No Post Operative complication.
(c) Surgical scar should be sufficiently matured and unlikely to cause any problems during military training.
(d) Normal general physical examination.
(e) Endocrine workup is normal
89. Polymazia Candidates to be considered fit after 12 weeks of Post-Operative period if thethere is no Post
Operative complication with a well healed surgical wound and no residual disease.
Musculoskeletal System and Physical Capacity
90. Spinal Conditions: Past medical history of disease or injury of the spine or sacroiliac joints, either with or
without objective signs, which has prevented the candidate from successfully following a physically active life, is a
cause for rejection for commissioning. History of recurrent lumbago/ spinal fracture/ prolapsed intervertebral disc and
surgical treatment for these conditions will entail rejection.
91. Clinical Examination. Normal thoracic kyphosis and cervical/ lumbar lordosis are barely noticeable and not
associated with pain or restriction of movement.
(a) If clinical examination reveals restriction of spine movements, deformities, tenderness of the spine or any gait
abnormalities, it will be considered unfit.
(b) Gross kyphosis, affecting military bearing/ restricts full range of spinal movements and/or expansion of chest is
unfit.
(c) When scoliosis is noticeable or any pathological condition of the spine is suspected, radiographic examination
of the appropriate part of the spine needs to be carried out. Scoliosis is unfit, if deformity persists on full flexion
of the spine, when associated with restricted range of spine movements or when due to an underlying
pathological cause.
(d) Spina Bifida. The following markers should be looked for, on clinical examination and corroborated with
radiological evaluation:-
(i) Congenital defects overlying the spine eg, hypertrichosis, skin dimpling, haemangioma, pigmented
naevus or dermal sinus.
(ii) Presence of lipoma over spine.
(iii) Palpable spina bifida.
(iv) Abnormal findings on neurological examination.
92. Castellvi Classification for Lumbosacral Transitional Vertebra (LSTV).
Castellvi Classification for LSTV
(a) Type I. Enlarged and dysplastic transverse process (at least 19 mm in width in craniocaudal dimension).
(i) I a. Unilateral.
(ii) I b. Bilateral.
(b) Type II. Pseudoarticulation of the transverse process and sacrum with incomplete lumbarisation/sacralistion
(enlargement of the transverse process with pseudoarthrosis).
(i) II a. Unilateral.
(ii) II b. Bilateral.
(c) Type III. Transverse process fuses with the sacrum and there is complete lumbarisation or sacralisation
(enlarged transverse process with complete fusion).
(i) III a. Unilateral.
(ii) III b. Bilateral.
(d) Type IV. Type II on one side and type III on the contralateral side.
93. Spinal Conditions Unfit for Air Force Duties (Both Flying and Ground Duties)
(a) Congenital/Developmental Anomalies.
(i) Wedge Vertebra.
(ii) Hemivertebra.
(iii) Anterior Central Defect.
(iv) Cervical Ribs (Unilateral/Bilateral) with demonstrable neurological or circulatory deficit.
(v) Spina Bifida. All types are unfit except in sacrum and LV5 (if completely sacralised).
(vi) Loss of Cervical Lordosis with neurological deficit.
(vii) Assessment of Scoliosis. Idiopathic scoliosis upto 10 degrees for Lumbar Spine and 15 degrees for Dorsal
Spine will be acceptable provided:-
(aa) Individual is asymptomatic.
(ab) No history of trauma to spine.
(ac) No chest asymmetry/shoulder imbalance or pelvic obliquity in the lumbar spine.
(ad) There is no neurological deficit.
(ae) No congenital anomaly of the spine.
(af) There is absence of syndromic features.
(ag) ECG is normal.
(ah) No deformity exists on full flexion of the spine.
(aj) No restriction of range of movements
(ak) No organic defect causing structural abnormality.
(vii) Atlanto-occipital and Atlanto-axial anomalies.
(ix) Incomplete block vertebra at any level.
(x) Complete block vertebra at more than one level. (Single level is acceptable. Annotation is to be made in
AFMSF-2).
(xi) Lumbosacral Transitional Vertebra (LSTV). Unilateral sacralisation or lumbarisation (complete or
incomplete) and Bilateral incomplete sacralisation or lumbarisation (LSTV- Castellvi Type II a and b, III
a and IV).
Bilateral Complete Sacralisation of LV5 and Bilateral Complete Lumbarisation of SV1, LSTV Castellvi
Type III b, Type I a and b are acceptable (Annotation is to be made in AFMSF-2).
(xii) Spondylolysis/Spondylolisthesis.
(xiii) Intervertebral Disc Prolapse.
(xiv) Schmorl’s Nodes at more than one level.
(b) Traumatic Conditions
(i) Spondylolysis/ Spondylolisthesis
(ii) Compression fracture of vertebra
(iii) Intervertebral Disc Prolapse
(iv) Schmorl’s Nodes at more than one level
(c) Infective
(i) Tuberculosis and other Granulomatous disease of spine (old or active)
(ii) Infective Spondylitis
(d) Autoimmune
(i) Rheumatoid Arthritis and allied disorders
(ii) Ankylosing spondylitis
(iii) Other rheumatological disorders of spine e.g Polymyositis, SLE and Vasculitis
(e) Degenerative
(i) Spondylosis
(ii) Degenerative Joint Disorders
(iii) Degenerative Disc Disease
(iv) Osteoarthrosis/ osteoarthritis
(v) Scheuerman’s Disease (Adolescent Kyphosis)
(f) Any other spinal abnormality, if so considered by the specialist.
Conditions affecting the assessment of upper limbs
94. Amputations and Deformities of Upper limbs. Deformities of the upper limbs or their parts will be cause for
rejection. Candidate with an amputation of a limb or any part of limb including fingers will not be accepted for entry.
95. Fingers and Hands. Deformities and limitations to movements will be considered unfit.
(a) Polydactyly. Can be declared fit 12 weeks post- operative, if there is no bony abnormality on radiograph,
wound is well healed, scar is supple and there is no evidence of neuroma on clinical examination.
(b) Simple Syndactyly. Can be declared fit 12 weeks post-operative, if there is no bony abnormality on radiograph,
wound is healed, scar is supple and webspace is satisfactory.
(c) Complex syndactyly. Unfit.
(d) Hyperextensible finger joints. All candidates shall be thoroughly examined for hyperextensible finger joints.
Any extension of fingers bending backwards beyond 90 degrees shall be considered hyperextensible and
considered unfit. Other joints like knee, elbow, spine and thumb shall also be examined carefully for features of
hyper-laxity/hypermobility. Although the individual may not show features of hyperlaxity in other joints,
isolated presentation of hyperextensibility of finger joints shall be considered unfit because of the various
ailments that may manifest later, if such candidates are subjected to strenuous physical training.
(e) Mallet Finger. Loss of extensor mechanism at the distal interphalangeal joint leads to Mallet finger. Chronic
mallet deformity can lead to secondary changes in the proximal inter-phalangeal (PIP) and metacarpo
phalangeal (MCP) joint which can result in compromised hand function. Normal range of movement at distal
inter-phalangeal (DIP) joints is 0-80 degree and PIP joint is 0-90 degree in both flexion and extension. In Mallet
finger, the candidate is unable to extend/straighten distal phalanx of fingers completely.
(i) Candidates with mild condition ie, less than 10 degree of extension lag without any evidence of trauma,
pressure symptoms and any functional deficit must be declared fit.
(ii) Candidates with fixed deformity of fingers will be declared unfit.
96. Wrist. Painless limitation of movement of the wrist will be assessed according to the degree of stiffness. Loss of
dorsiflexion is more serious than loss of palmar flexion.
97. Elbow. Slight limitation of movement does not bar acceptance provided functional capacity is adequate.
Ankylosis will entail rejection. Cubitus Valgus is said to be present when the carrying angle (angle between arm and
forearm in anatomical posture) is exaggerated. In absence of functional disability and obvious cause like a fracture
mal-union, fibrosis or the like, a carrying angle of upto 15º in male and 18º in female candidates would be made fit.
98. Hyperextension at elbow joint:Individuals can have naturally hyperextended elbow. This condition is not a
medical problem, but can be a cause of fracture or chronic pain especially considering the stress and strains military
population is involved in. Also, the inability to return the elbow to within 10 degrees of the neutral position is
impairment in the activities of daily living.
(a) Measurement modality: Measured using a goniometer
(b) Recommendation: Normal elbow extension is 0 degrees. Up to 10 degrees of hyperextension is within normal
limits if the patient has no history of trauma to the joint. Anyone with hyperextension more than 10 degrees
should be unfit.
99. Cubitus Varus of > 5 degree will be unfit.
100. Cubitus Recurvatum:. Cubitus recurvatum>10 degrees is unfit
101. Shoulder Girdle. History of recurrent dislocation of shoulder with or without corrective surgery will be unfit.
102. Clavicle. Non-union of an old fracture clavicle will entail rejection. Mal-united clavicle fracture without loss of
function and without obvious deformity are acceptable.
Conditions affecting the assessment of lower limbs
103. Hallux valgus with angle >20 degrees and first-second metatarsal angle of >10 degrees is unfit. Hallux valgus of
any degree with bunion, corns or callosities is unfit.
104. Hallux rigidus is unfit for service.
105. Isolated single flexible mild hammer toe without symptoms may be accepted. Fixed (rigid) deformity or hammer
toe associated with corns, callosities, mallet toes or hyperextension at meta-tarso-phalangeal joint (claw toe
deformity) are to be rejected.
106. Loss of any digits/ toes entails rejection.
107. Deformities of the lower limbs or their parts will be cause for rejection. Candidate with an amputation of a limb
or any part of limb including toes will not be accepted for entry.
108. Pes Planus (Flat feet)
(a) If the arches of the feet reappear on standing on toes, if the candidate can skip and run well on the toes and if
the feet are supple, mobile and painless, the candidate is acceptable.
(b) Rigid or fixed flat feet, gross flat feet, with planovalgus, eversion of heel, cannot balance himself on toes,
cannot skip on the forefoot, tender painful tarsal joints, prominent head of talus will be considered unfit.
Restriction of the movements of the foot will also be a cause for rejection. Rigidity of the foot, whatever may be
the shape of the foot, is a cause for rejection.
109. Pes Cavus and Talipes (Club Foot). Mild degree of idiopathic pes cavus without any functional limitation is
acceptable. Moderate and severe pes cavus and pes cavus due to organic disease will entail rejection. All cases of
Talipes (Club Foot) will be rejected.
110. Ankle Joints. Any significant limitation of movement following previous injuries will not be accepted.
Functional evaluation with imaging should be carried out wherever necessary.
111. Knee Joint. Any ligamentous laxity is not accepted. Candidates who have undergone ACL reconstruction surgery
are to be considered unfit.
112. Genu valgum (knock knee) with intermalleolar distance > 5 cm in males and > 8 cm in females will be unfit.
113. Genu varum (bow legs) with intercondylar distance >7 cm will be considered unfit.
114. Genu Recurvatum. If the hyperextension of the knee is within 10 degrees and is unaccompanied by any other
deformity, the candidate should be accepted as fit.
115. True lesions of the hip joint or early signs of arthritis will entail rejection.
Healed Fractures
116. Intra-Articular Fractures. All intra-articular fractures especially of major joints (shoulder, elbow, wrist, hip,
knee and ankle) with or without surgery, with or without implant shall be considered unfit.
117. Extra-Articular Fractures.
(a) All extra-articular fractures with post-operative implant in-situ shall be considered unfit and will be considered
for fitness after minimum of 12 weeks of implant removal.
(b) Nine months will be the minimum duration for considering evaluation following extra-articular injuries of all
long bones (both upper and lower limbs) post injury which have been managed conservatively. Individual will
be considered fit if there is:-
(i) No evidence of mal-alignment/mal-union.
(ii) No neuro-vascular deficit.
(iii) No soft tissue loss.
(iv) No functional deficit.
(v) No evidence of osteomyelitis/sequestra formation.
118. Peripheral Vascular System
119. Varicose Veins. All cases with active varicose veins will be declared unfit. Post-op cases of varicose veins also
remain unfit.
120. Arterial System. Current or history of abnormalities of the arteries and blood vessels e.g. aneurysms, arteritis and
peripheral arterial disease will be considered unfit.
121. Lymphoedema. History of past/ current disease makes the candidate unfit.
Central Nervous System
122. History of Mental Illness.A candidate giving a history of mental illness/psychological afflictions will be
rejected.
123. Family History of Psychological Disorders. When a history of nervous breakdown, mental disease, or suicide
of a near relative is obtained, a careful investigation of the personal past history from a psychological point of view is
to be obtained. Any evidence of even the slightest psychological instability in the personal history or present
condition must entail rejection.
124. Family History of Epilepsy. If a history of epilepsy is obtained in a near relative, then the candidate must be
made unfit and subjected to a detailed evaluation with appropriate investigations at the time of appeal.
125. Severe or ‘Throbbing’ Headache and Migraine. A candidate with migraine, which was severe enough to
make him/her consult a doctor, will be a cause for rejection. Even a single attack of migraine with visual disturbance
or Migrainous epilepsy is to be made unfit.
126. Fits and Convulsions. History of epilepsy in a candidate is a cause for rejection. Seizures may masquerade as
‘faints’ and therefore the frequency and the conditions under which ‘faints’ took place must be elicited. Such attacks
will be made unfit, whatever their apparent nature. An isolated fainting attack calls for enquiry into all the attendant
factors to distinguish between syncope and seizures. Complex partial seizures, are criteria for making the candidate
unfit.
127. Heat stroke. History of repeated attacks of heat stroke, hyperpyrexia or heat exhaustion bars employment for
Air Force duties, as it is an evidence of a faulty heat regulating mechanism. A single severe attack of heat effects
provided the history of exposure was severe, and no permanent sequelae were evident is, by itself, not a reason for
rejecting the candidate.
128. Head Injury or Concussion. A history of severe head injury/fracture of the skull/ history of intracranial damage
or any residual bony defect in the calvaria is a cause for rejection. Presence of burr holes will be cause for rejection.
129. Psychosis. All candidates who are suffering from psychosis are to be rejected. Drug dependence in any form
will also be a cause for rejection.
130. Psychoneurosis. Mentally unstable and neurotic individuals are unfit for commissioning. Juvenile and adult
delinquency, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill-health are causes for rejection.
131. Organic Nervous Conditions. Any evident neurological deficit will call for rejection.
132. Tremors. Persistent tremors even after reassuring the candidate is will be unfit. On appeal only pathological
tremors will render the candidate unfit.
133. Stammering. Candidates with stammering will be declared unfit. Stammering will be made unfit, even if it is
first detected during the time of appeal medical board.
134. Any history of mental disorder in the family or in the candidate himself/herself or signs of intellectual, emotional
or conduct disorders or symptoms of psychosomatic disorders should be made unfit and subjected to detailed
evaluation and appropriate investigations at the time of appeal by the psychiatrist.
135. Hyperstosis Frontalis Interna will be considered fit in the absence of any other metabolic abnormality.
Ear, Nose and Throat
136. Nose and Para-nasal Sinuses.
(a) External Deformity of Nose or Deviated Nasal Septum.
(i) Unfit - Gross external deformity of nose causing cosmetic deformity or obstruction to free breathing as a
result of a marked septal deviation.
(ii) On appeal - Post corrective surgery with residual mild deviation with adequate airway patency will be
acceptable after four weeks post surgery.
(b) Septal Perforation- Unfit
(i) On appeal - Any anterior septal perforation/posterior septal perforation > 01 cm in the greatest dimension is
a ground for rejection. A septal perforation which is associated with nasal deformity, nasal crusting,
epistaxis and granulation irrespective of the size is a ground for rejection.
(c) Atrophic rhinitis- Unfit.
(d) Any history/clinical evidence suggestive of allergic rhinitis/vasomotor rhinitis are to be declared Unfit
(e) Any infection of the para-nasal sinuses is to be declared Unfit. Such cases may be accepted following
successful treatment at the Appeal Medical Board.
(f) Nasal polyposis. Unfit (treated or untreated).
137. Oral Cavity.
(a) Unfit.
(i) Current/operated cases of leukoplakia, erythroplakia, submucous fibrosis, ankyloglossia and oral
carcinoma.
(ii) Current oral ulcers/growths and mucous retention cysts.
(iii) Trismus due to any cause.
(iv) Cleft palate, even after surgical correction.
(b) Fit.
(i) Completely healed oral ulcers after four weeks post-surgery with proven benign histopathology.
(ii) Operated cases of mucus retention cyst with no recurrence and proven benign histology. Evaluation in
these cases must be done after minimum four weeks post-surgery.
(iii) Sub-mucous cleft of palate with or without bifid uvula not causing Eustachian tube dysfunction may be
accepted by ENT specialist, provided PTA, tympanometry and speech are normal.
138. Pharynx and Larynx. The following conditions are unfit:-
(a) Any ulcerative/mass lesion of the pharynx.
(b) Candidates in whom tonsillectomy is indicated. Such candidates may be accepted minimum four weeks after
successful surgery provided there are no sequelae and histology is benign.
(c) Cleft palate.
(d) Any disabling condition of the pharynx or larynx causing persistent hoarseness or dysphonia.
(e) Chronic laryngitis, vocal cord palsy, laryngeal polyps and growths.
139. Eustachian Tube Dysfunction. Unfit- Obstruction or insufficiency of Eustachian tube function.
140. Tinnitus. Unfit
141. Susceptibility to Motion Sickness. Specific enquiry must be made for any susceptibility to motion sickness. An
endorsement to this effect must be made in AFMSF-2. Such cases will be fully evaluated and, if found susceptible to
motion sickness, they will be rejected for flying duties. Any evidence of peripheral vestibular dysfunction due to
any cause will entail rejection.
142. Hearing loss. The following are not acceptable:-
(a) Hearing acuity below 600 cm in CV or FW.
(b) The audiometric loss greater than 20 db, in frequencies between 250 and 8000 Hz on PTA.
143. External Ear. The following defects of external ear must be declared unfit:-
(a) Gross deformity of pinna which may hamper wearing of uniform/personal kit/ protective equipment, or which
adversely impacts military bearing.
(b) Cases of chronic otitis externa.
(c) Any condition (ear wax, atresia/narrowing of external auditory meatus or neoplasm, exaggerated tortuosity of
the canal, bony growth of external auditory canal) preventing a proper visualization of the tympanic membrane.
(d) Granulation or polyp in external auditory canal.
144. Middle Ear. The following conditions of middle ear will entail rejection:-
(a) Otitis Media. Current Otitis Media of any type will entail rejection. If evidence of healed chronic otitis media
(in the form of tympanosclerosis/scarred tympanic membrane affecting only pars tensa part of tympanic
membrane) and all operated cases of tympanoplasty/Myringotomy will be assessed by ENT specialist. They
will be acceptable if Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA) and Tympanometry are normal. On appeal, a trial of
decompression chamber may be carried out, if indicated, for aircrew, ATC/FC, submariners/divers.
(b) Any type of TM perforation or healed perforation/retraction in pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane is unfit.
(c) Marked retraction or restriction in TM mobility on pneumatic otoscopy.
(d) Tympanometry showing patterns other than Type ‘A’ tympanogram.
(e) Any implanted hearing devices eg, cochlear implants, bone-anchored hearing aids etc.
(f) After middle ear surgeries viz, stapedectomy, ossiculoplasty, any type of mastoidectomy.
145. Miscellaneous Ear Conditions. The following ear conditions will entail rejection: -
(a) Otosclerosis.
(b) Meniere’s disease.
(c) Vestibular dysfunction including nystagmus of vestibular origin.
(d) Bell’s palsy following ear infection.
OPHTHALMIC SYSTEM
146. Clinical Examination findings.
(a) Candidates, who are wearing spectacles or found to have defective vision, should be properly assessed. All
cases of squint are unfit.
(b) Ptosis.
(i) Candidates, who meet the following criteria are Fit.
(aa) Mild ptosis.
(ab) Clear visual axis.
(ac) Normal visual field.
(ad) No sign of aberrant degeneration/head tilt /Horner’s Syndrome.
(ii) Rest all cases - Unfit
(iii) On appeal - Candidates who have undergone surgical correction may be considered fit provided one year
has elapsed post-surgery with no recurrence, the above-mentioned criteria are met and upper eyelid is not
more than 02 mm below the superior limbus.
(c) Exotropia. Unfit.
(d) Anisocoria. If size difference between the pupils is >01 mm, candidate will be considered unfit.
(e) Heterochromia irides. Unfit
(f) Sphincter tears. Can be considered fit, if size difference between pupils is <01 mm, pupillary reflexes are brisk
with no observed pathology in cornea, lens or retina.
(g) Pseudophakia. Unfit
(h) Blepharitis. Candidates with blepharitis, particularly with loss of eyelashes, must be rejected.
(j) Ectropion/Entropion. These cases are to be made unfit. On appeal, mild ectropion and entropion which in the
opinion of ophthalmologist will not hamper day to day functioning in any way, may be made fit.
(k) Pterygium. All cases of pterygium are to be made unfit. On appeal, regressive non-vascularised pterygium
occupying ≤ 1.5 mm of the peripheral cornea may be made fit by Eye Specialist after measurement on a slit
lamp.
(l) Nystagmus. All cases of nystagmus are to be made unfit except for physiological nystagmus.
(m) Naso-lacrymal duct occlusion producing epiphora or a mucocele entails rejection.
(n) Active Uveitis (iritis, cyclitis and choroiditis) will be grounds for rejection. Candidates giving a history of this
condition should be made unfit.
(o) Cornea.
(i) Unfit
(aa) Corneal scars/opacities
(ab) Any candidate with progressive corneal disorders viz, Corneal dystrophies, Keratoconus,
Keratoglobus, any corneal degenerations.
(ac) Any active corneal disorder.
(ii) On appeal corneal scars are acceptable if it does not interfere with vision.
(p) Lenticular opacities. – Unfit
On appeal
(i) Unfit- Any lenticular opacity that is causing visual deterioration or is in the visual axis or central area of
04 mm around the pupils is unfit. The propensity of the opacities not to increase in size or number should
also be a considered.
(ii) Fit - Small stationary lenticular opacities in the periphery like congenital blue dot cataract, not affecting
the visual axis/visual field (should be less than 10 in number and central area of 04 mm should be clear).
(q) Optic Nerve Drusen. Unfit.
(r) High Cup - Disc ratio. Unfit, if any of the following conditions exist:-
(i) Inter-Eye asymmetry in cup disc ratio > 0.2.
(ii) Retinal Nerve fibre Layer (RNFL) defect seen by RNFL analysis on Optical Coherence Tomography
(OCT).
(iii) Visual Field defect detected by Visual Field Analyser.
(s) Migraine with visual symptoms are not a strictly ocular problem and should be assessed in accordance with para
124.
(t) As tests for night blindness are not routinely performed, a certificate to the effect that the individual does not
suffer from night blindness will be obtained in every case. Certificate should be as per Appendix C to this
chapter. A proven case of night-blindness is unfit.
(u) Restriction of movements of the eyeball in any direction and undue depression/prominence of the eyeball are
unfit.
(v) Retinal lesions. A small healed chorio-retinal scar in the retinal periphery not affecting the vision and not
associated with any other complications will be considered fit. Similarly, a small lattice in periphery with no
other complications will be made fit. Any lesion in the central fundus will be made unfit.
(w) Lattice degeneration.
(i) The following lattice degeneration will render a candidate unfit:-
(aa) Single circumferential lattice extending more than two clock hours in either or both eyes.
(ab) Two circumferential lattices, each more than one clock hour in extent in either or both eyes.
(ac) Radial lattices.
(ad) Any lattice with atrophic hole/ flap tears (Unlasered).
(ae) Lattice degeneration posterior to equator.
(ii) Candidates with lattice degeneration will be considered fit under the following conditions:-
(aa) Single circumferential lattice without holes of less than two clock hours in either or both eyes.
(ab) Two circumferential lattices without holes each being less than one clock hour in extent in either or
both eyes.
(ac) Post-laser delimitation, single circumferential lattice, without holes/flap tear, less than two clock
hours extent in either or both eyes.
(ad) Post-laser delimitation, two circumferential lattices, without holes/flap tear, each being less than one
clock hour extent in either or both eyes.
(x) Keratoconus. Keratoconus is unfit.
147. Visual Acuity/Colour Vision. The visual acuity and colour vision requirements are detailed in Appendix D to
this chapter. Those who do not meet these requirements will be rejected.
148. Myopia.
(a) Unfit, if outside the prescribed visual limits.
(b) Unfit even if the corrected visual acuity is within the acceptable limits when:-
(i) There is a strong family history of high myopia, and that the visual defect is recent onset.
(ii) If physical growth is still expected.
(iii) If the fundus appearance is suggestive of progressive myopia.
149. Refractive Surgeries. The disposal of candidates who have undergone Keratorefractive Surgeries (PRK,
LASIK, Femto LASIK, SMILE or equivalent procedures) for commissioning in the Air Force in all branches is as
follows :-
(a) Fit
(i) Candidates for IAF meeting the visual requirements for the branch as laid down in Appendix D to para 146.
Residual refraction after such procedure should not be more than +/- 1.0 D Sph or Cyl for branches where
correctable refractive errors are permitted.
(ii) Keratorefractive Surgery must not have been carried out before the age of 20 years.
(iii) At least 12 months must have elapsed post uncomplicated stable Keratorefractive Surgery with no history
or evidence of any complication.
(iv) The axial length of the eye must not be more than 26 mm as measured by IOL master.
(v) The post Keratorefractive Surgery corneal thickness as measured by a corneal Pachymeter must not be less
than 450 microns.
(b) Unfit
(i) Radial Keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors
(ii) Individuals with high refractive errors (> 6 D) prior to Keratorefractive Surgery.
150. Cataract Surgeries. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will be
declared unfit.
151. Other Eye Surgeries. Candidates having undergone any invasive surgeries viz, Implantable Collamer Lens
(ICL), Trabeculectomy, Glaucoma surgeries with or without implants, Corneal Collagen Crosslinking with Riboflavin
(C3R), INTACS, any intra ocular injections, retinal surgeries etc, will be declared unfit.
Ocular Muscle Balance
152. Individuals with manifest squint are not acceptable for commissioning.
153. The assessment of latent squint or heterophoria in the case of aircrew will be mainly based on the assessment of
the fusion capacity. A strong fusion sense ensures the maintenance of binocular vision in the face of stress and
fatigue. Hence, it is the main criterion for acceptability.
(a) Convergence (as Assessed on RAF rule).
(i) Objective Convergence.
(aa) Up to 10 cm- Fit.
(ab) More than 10 cm - Unfit.
(ii) Subjective Convergence (SC). This indicates the end point of binocular vision under the stress of
convergence. If the subjective convergence is more than 10 cm beyond the limit of objective convergence,
the fusion capacity is poor. This is specially so when the objective convergence is 10 cm and above.
(b) Accommodation. In the case of myopes, accommodation should be assessed with corrective glasses in position.
The acceptable values for accommodation in various age groups are given in Table 1.
Table 1 -Accommodation Values – Age wise
+-------------------+-------------+-------------+-------------+-------------+-------------+-------------+
| Age in years | 17-20 | 21-25 | 26-30 | 31-35 | 36-40 | 41-45 |
+===================+=============+=============+=============+=============+=============+=============+
| Accommodation (in | 10-11 | 11-12 | 12.5-13.5 | 14-16 | 16-18.5 | 18.5-27 |
| cm) | | | | | | |
+-------------------+-------------+-------------+-------------+-------------+-------------+-------------+
154. Ocular muscle balance is dynamic and varies with concentration, anxiety, fatigue, hypoxia, drugs and alcohol.
The above tests should be considered together for the final assessment. Standards for assessment of Ocular Muscle
Balance are detailed in Appendix E to this chapter.
155. Any clinical findings in the media (cornea, lens, vitreous) or fundus, which is of pathological nature and likely to
progress will be a cause for rejection. This examination will be done by slit lamp and ophthalmoscopy under
mydriasis.
Appendix C
[Refers to para 146 (t) Ophthalmology standards]
CERTIFICATE REGARDING NIGHT BLINDNESS
Name with initials_______________________________________________________________________Batch No.
_________________________ Chest No ________________________
I hereby certify that to the best of my knowledge, there has not been any case of night blindness in our
family, and I do not suffer from it.
Date:
(Signature of the candidate)
Countersigned by
(Name of Medical Officer)
Appendix D
(Refers para 147 of Ophthalmology standards)
VISUAL STANDARDS FOR CANDIDATES AT INITIAL ENTRY
+-------+-------+---------------------------+---------------------------------+-----------------+
| Sl | Med | Branch | Maximum Limits of | Visual Acuity |
| No. | Cat | | Refractive Error | (VA) with limits|
| | | | | of maximum |
| | | | | correction |
+=======+=======+===========================+=================================+=================+
| 1 | A1G1 | F (P) including | Hypermetropia: + 1.5D Sph | 6/6 in one eye |
| | | WSOs, Flying | Manifest Myopia: Nil | and 6/9 in |
| | | Branch Candidates | Astigmatism: +0.75D Cyl | other, |
| | | at NDA and AFA | (within +1.5 D Max) | correctable to |
| | | | Retinoscopic myopia: Nil | 6/6 only for |
| | | | | Hypermetropia |
+-------+-------+---------------------------+---------------------------------+-----------------+
Note: -
1. Ocular muscle balance for personnel covered in Ser No. 1 and 2 must conform to Appendix E to this Chapter.
2. The Sph correction factors mentioned above will be inclusive of the specified astigmatic correction factor. A
minimum correction factor upto the specified visual acuity standard can be accepted.
Appendix E
(Refer para 154)
STANDARD OF OCULAR MUSCLE BALANCE FOR FLYING DUTIES
+---------+-----------------------------------+--------------------------------+
| Ser. No.| Test | Fit |
+=========+===================================+================================+
| 1 | Maddox Rod Test at 06 m | Exo - 06 Prism D |
| | | Eso - 06 Prism D |
| | | Hyper - 01 prism D |
| | | Hypo - 01 prism D |
+---------+-----------------------------------+--------------------------------+
| 2 | Maddox Rod Test at 33 cm | Exo -16 Prism D |
| | | Eso - 06 Prism D |
| | | Hyper - 01 Prism D |
| | | Hypo - 01 Prism D |
+---------+-----------------------------------+--------------------------------+
| 3 | TNO Test or Titmus Fly Test | All of BSV grades |
+---------+-----------------------------------+--------------------------------+
| 4 | Convergence | Up to 10 cm |
+---------+-----------------------------------+--------------------------------+
| 5 | Cover Test for Distance and Near | Latent divergence/convergence |
| | | recovery rapid and complete |
+---------+-----------------------------------+--------------------------------+
Haemopoietic System
156. All cases of anemia (<13 g/dL in males and <12g/dL in females) will be declared unfit during SMB.
157. All candidates with evidence of hereditary haemolyticanaemias (due to red cell membrane defect or due to red
cell enzyme deficiencies) and haemoglobinopathies (Sickle cell disease, Beta-Thalassaemia: Major, Intermedia,
Minor, Trait and Alpha Thalassaemiaetc) are to be considered unfit for service.
158. Candidates with history of haemophilia or von Willebrand’s disease are to be declared unfit. Candidates with
clinical evidence of purpura or evidence of thrombocytopenia are to be considered unfit. Cases of Purpura Simplex
(simple easy bruising), a benign disorder seen in otherwise healthy women, may be accepted.
159. Monocytosis. Absolute monocyte counts greater than 1000/cumm or more than or equal to 10% of total WBC is
to be deemed unfit.
160. Eosinophilia. Absolute eosinophil counts greater than or equal to 500/cumm is deemed unfit.
161. Haemoglobin more than 16.5 g/dL in males and more than 16 g/dL in females will be considered as
Polycythemia and deemed Unfit.
Dental Fitness Standards
162. Dental Standards.
(a) Candidate must have a total minimum of 14 dental points and the following teeth must be present in the upper
jaw in good functional opposition with the corresponding teeth in the lower jaw.
(i) Any four of the six anterior.
(ii) Any six of the ten posterior.
(b) The above dental standards are to be followed and candidates who do not conform to the laid down standards
will be rejected.
163. Extra Oral Examination.
(a) Gross Facial Examination. Presence of any gross asymmetry or soft/hard tissue defects/scars or if any
incipient pathological condition of the jaw is suspected, it will be a cause of rejection.
(b) Functional Examination.
(i) Temporo-Mandibular Joint (TMJ). TMJs will be bilaterally palpated for tenderness and/or clicking.
Candidates with symptomatic clicking and/or tenderness or dislocation of the TMJ on wide opening will be
rejected.
(ii) Mouth Opening. A mouth opening of less than 30 mm measured at the incisal edges will be reason for
rejection.
164. Guidelines for Awarding Dental Points in Special Situations.
(a) Dental caries. Teeth with caries that have not been restored or teeth associated with broken down crowns, pulp
exposure, residual root stumps, teeth with abscesses and/or sinuses will not be counted for award of dental
points.
(b) Restorations. Teeth having restorations that appear to be improper/broken/discolored will not be awarded
dental points. Teeth restored by use of inappropriate materials, temporary or fractured restorations with doubtful
marginal integrity or peri-apical pathology will not be awarded dental points.
(c) Loose Teeth. Loose/mobile teeth with clinically demonstrable mobility will not be awarded dental points.
Periodontally splinted teeth will not be counted for award of dental points.
(d) Retained Deciduous Teeth. Retained deciduous teeth will not be awarded dental points.
(e) Morphological Defects. Teeth with structural defects which compromise efficient mastication will not be
awarded dental points.
(f) Periodontium.
(i) The condition of the gums, of the teeth included for counting dental points, should be healthy ie pink in
colour, firm in consistency and firmly resting against the necks of the teeth. Visible calculus should not be
present.
(ii) Individual teeth with localized periodontitis (swollen, red or infected gums or those with visible calculus)
will not be awarded dental points.
(iii) Candidates with severe periodontal disease (generalized calculus, extensive swollen and red gums, with or
without exudates), shall be rejected. If periodontal disease is not severe and the teeth are otherwise sound,
the candidate may be accepted if in the opinion of the Dental Officer, he/she can be cured by simple
periodontal therapy excluding extraction.
(g) Malocclusion. Candidates with malocclusion affecting masticatory efficiency and phonetics shall not be
selected. Teeth in open bite will not be awarded dental points as they are not considered to be in functional
apposition. Candidates having an open bite, reverse overjet or any visible malocclusion will be rejected.
However, if in the opinion of the Dental Officer, the malocclusion of teeth is not hampering efficient
mastication, phonetics, maintenance of oral hygiene or general nutrition or performance of duties efficiently,
then candidates will be declared fit. The following criteria have to be considered in assessing malocclusion: -
(i) Edge to Edge Bite. Edge to edge bite will be considered as functional apposition.
(ii) Anterior Open Bite. Anterior open bite is to be taken as lack of functional opposition of involved teeth.
(iii) Cross Bite. Teeth in cross bite may still be in functional occlusion and will be awarded points, if so.
(iv) Traumatic Bite. Anterior teeth involved in a deep impinging bite which is causing traumatic indentations
on the palate will not be counted for award of points.
(h) Hard and Soft tissues. Soft tissues of cheek, lips, palate, tongue and sublingual region and maxilla/mandibular
bony apparatus must be examined for any swelling, discoloration, ulcers, scars, white patches, sub mucous
fibrosis etc. All potentially malignant lesions will be cause for rejection. Clinical diagnosis for sub-mucous
fibrosis with or without restriction of mouth opening will be a cause of rejection. Bony lesion (s) will be
assessed for their pathological/physiological nature and commented upon accordingly. Any hard or soft tissue
lesion will be a cause of rejection.
(j) Orthodontic Appliances. Fixed orthodontics lingual retainers will not be considered as periodontal splints and
teeth included in these retainers will be awarded points for dental fitness. Candidates wearing fixed or
removable orthodontic appliances will be declared unfit.
(k) Dental Implants. Implants and Implant Supported Prosthesis will not be awarded any dental points. In the case
of ex-serviceman applying for re-enrolment, dental points will be awarded for removal dental prosthesis.
(l) Fixed Partial Dentures (FPD)/Implant supported FPDs. FPDs will be assessed clinically and radiologically
for firmness, functional apposition to opposing teeth and periodontal health of the abutments. If all parameters
are found satisfactory, dental points will be awarded for the natural tooth (abutments).
Note: - Any prosthesis, removable/fixed or implant borne, the natural tooth/teeth in that component will be
awarded dental points.
165. The Following will be Criteria for Declaring a Candidate Unfit: -
(a) Oral Hygiene. Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal pockets and/or bleeding
from gums will render candidate unfit.
(b) Candidates Reporting Post Maxillo-Facial Surgery/Maxillofacial Trauma. Candidates who undergo
cosmetic or post-traumatic maxillofacial surgery/trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24 weeks from the date of
surgery/injury whichever is later. After this period, if there is no residual deformity or functional deficit, they
will be assessed as per the laid down criteria.
(c) Candidate with dental arches affected by advanced stage of generalized active lesions of pyorrhoea, acute
ulcerative gingivitis, and gross abnormality of the teeth or jaws or with numerous caries or septic teeth will be
rejected.
1. Please visit www.joinindianarmy.nic.in for Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination of
Officers’ Entry into Army as applicable.
2. Please visit www.joinindiannavy.gov.in for Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination of
Officers’ Entry into Navy as applicable.
3. Please visit www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in for Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination
of Officers’ Entry into Air Force as applicable.
Note: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e from inside of elbow to the
wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand. Permanent body tattoos on any other part of
the body are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on
the face or body as per their existing custom and traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis.
Commandant Selection Centre will be competent authority for clearing such cases.
APPENDIX-(III)
(Brief particulars of service etc.)
Pay scale of Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy
Pay
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| Rank | Level | (Pay in Rs.) |
+===================+=================+=================+
| Lieutenant | Level 10 | 56,100 -1,77,500|
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| Captain | Level 10 B | 61,300- 1,93,900|
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| Major | Level 11 | 69,400 - 2,07,200|
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| Lieutenant Colonel| Level 12A | 1,21,200 - 2,12,400|
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| Colonel | Level 13 | 1,30,600-2,15,900|
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| Brigadier | Level 13A | 1,39,600-2,17,600|
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| Major General | Level 14 | 1,44,200-2,18,200|
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| Lieutenant General| HAG Scale | Level 15 |
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| HAG+Scale | Level 16 | 2,05,400 - 2,24,400|
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| VCOAS/Army Cdr/ | Lieutenant General| Level 17 |
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
| COAS | Level 18 | 2,50,000/-(fixed)|
+-------------------+-----------------+-----------------+
MSP to the officer is as follows
+---------------------------------------------------------------+---------------------+
| Military Service Pay(MSP) to the officers from the rank of | Rs 15,500 p.m. fixed|
| Lieutenant to Brigadier | |
+---------------------------------------------------------------+---------------------+
Fixed Stipend for cadet Training
+---------------------------------------------------------------+---------------------+
| Stipend to Officer Cadets during the entire duration of training in Service| Rs 56,100/-p.m.* (Starting pay in|
| academies i.e. during training period at IMA and OTA. | Level 10) |
+---------------------------------------------------------------+---------------------+
* On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in first Cell of
Level 10 and the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service and arrears on account of admissible
allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be paid to cadets.
(i) Other Allowances Risk and Hardship allowance has been introduced by the 7th CPC under which an individual
gets his entitled allowance as per risk and hardship of the area where he/she is serving.
(a) Dearness Allowance Admissible at the same rates and under the same conditions as are
applicable to the civilian personnel from time to time
(ii) Dress allowance Rs. 25000/- Rate will be enhanced by 25% each time DA is increased by 50%.
(iii) Free Ration in kind. In Peace and Field areas.
(iv) Transport Allce (TPTA).
+-------------+---------------------+---------------------+
| Pay Level | Higher TPTA Cities | Other Places |
| | (Rs. Per month) | (Rs. Per month) |
+=============+=====================+=====================+
| 10 and above| Rs. 7200+DA thereon | Rs. 3600+DA thereon |
+-------------+---------------------+---------------------+
Note :-
(a) Higher Tpt Cities (UA). Hyderabad, Patna, Delhi, Ahmadabad, Surat, Bengaluru, Kochi, Kozhikode, Indore,
Greater Mumbai, Nagpur, Pune, Jaipur, Chennai, Coimbatore, Ghaziabad, Kanpur, Lucknow, Kolkata.
(b) The allowance shall not be admissible to those service personnel who have been provided with the facility of
Government transport.
(c) Officers in Pay Level 14 and above, who are entitled to use official car, will have the option to avail official car
facility or to draw the TPTA at the rate of Rs. 15,750+DA per month.
(d) The allowance will not be admissible for the calendar month(s) wholly covered by leave.
(e) Physically disabled service personnel will continue to be paid at double rate, subject to a minimum of Rs. 2250
+ DAper month.
(vi) Children Education Allowance. Rs. 2813/-per month per child for two eldest surviving only. CEA is
admissible from Nursery to 12th Classes.
(i) Reimbursement should be done just once a year, after completion of the financial year (which for most schools
coincides with the Academic year).
(ii) Certificate from the head of institution where the ward of government employee studies should be sufficient for
this purpose. The certificate should confirm that the child studied in the school during the previous academic
year.
In the case of allowances specific to Defence Forces, the rates of these allowances would be enhanced by 25%
automatically each time the Dearness Allowance payable on the revised pay band goes up by 50% (GoI letter
No. A-27012/02/2017-Estt(AL) dated 16 August 2017).
(iii) Please note that pay and allowances and rules/provisions thereof are subject to revision from time to time
(A) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY, DEHRADUN:
1. Before the candidate joins the Indian Military Academy.
(a) He will be required to sign a certificate to the effect that he fully understands that he or his legal heirs shall not
be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government in respect of any injury which he
may sustain. In the course of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death results in the course
of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon or anaesthesia administrated to him for the treatment of
any injury received as aforesaid or otherwise.
(b) His parent or guardian will be required to sign a bond to the effect that if for any reason considered within his
control, the candidate wishes to withdraw before the completion of the course or fails to accept a commission if
offered; he will be liable to refund the whole or such portion of the cost of tuition, food, clothing and pay &
allowances, received as may be decided upon by Government.
2. Candidates finally selected will undergo a course of training for about 18 months. Candidates will be enrolled
under the Army Act as Officer cadets. Officer cadets will be dealt with the ordinary disciplinary purposes under the
rules and regulations of the Indian Military Academy, Dehradun.
3. While, the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be
borne by Government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expenses themselves.
The minimum expenses at the Indian Military Academy are not likely to exceed Rs. 200.00 per month. If a cadet’s
parent or guardian is unable to meet wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance may be granted by the
Government. Officer Cadets undergoing training at Indian Military Academy, Officers' Training Academy and
corresponding training establishments in Navy and Air Force, in whose cases the income of parents/guardians does
not exceed Rs. 1,500/- (under revision) per month are eligible for financial assistance. In case of parents/guardians
whose income exceeds Rs. 1,500/- (under revision) per month but does not exceed Rs. 2,000/- (under revision) per
month, the same financial assistance will be given in respect of all the sons/wards if there are more than one son/ward
simultaneously undergoing training in one or more than one of the above institutions irrespective of the fact whether
the institutions are under the same service or not. The immovable property and other assets and income from all
sources are also taken into account for determining the eligibility for financial assistance.
The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having any financial assistance, should, immediately after his son/ward
has been finally selected for training at the Indian Military Academy, submit an application through the District
Magistrate of his District who will with his recommendation forward the application to the Commandant, Indian
Military Academy, Dehradun.
4. Candidate finally selected for training at the Indian Military Academy will be required to deposit the following
amount with the Commandant on arrival :
(a) Pocket allowance for five months Rs. 1,000.00/-
@ Rs. 200.00 per month.
(b) For item of clothing and equipment Rs. 2,750.00/-
Total Rs. 3,750.00/-
Out of the amount mentioned above the following is refundable to the cadets in the event of financial assistance
being sanctioned to them.
Pocket allowance of five months Rs. 1,000.00/-
@ Rs. 200.00 per month.
5. The following Scholarships are tenable at the Indian Military Academy :
(i) PARSHURAM BHAU PATWARDAN SCHOLARSHIP—This scholarship is awarded to cadets from
MAHARASHTRA AND KARNATAKA. The value of one scholarship is upto a maximum of Rs. 500.00
per annum for the duration of a cadet’s stay at the Indian Military Academy subject to the cadet’s making
satisfactory progress. The cadets who are granted this scholarship will not be entitled to any other financial
assistance from the Government.
(ii) COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP—This scholarship is of the value of Rs.
360.00 per annum and is awarded to an eligible Maratha cadet who should be a son of ex-serviceman. The
Scholarship is in addition to any financial assistance from the Government.
6. An outfit allowance at the rate and under the general conditions applicable at the time for each cadet belonging to
the Indian Military Academy will be placed at disposal of the Commandant of the Academy. The unexpended portion
of the allowance will be :—
(a) handed over to the cadet on his being granted a commission or
(b) if he is not granted a commission refunded to the State.
On being granted a commission article of clothing and necessaries purchased from the allowance shall become the
personal property of the cadet. Such articles will, however be withdrawn from a cadet who resigns while under
training or who is removed or withdrawn prior to commissioning. The article withdrawn will be disposed of to the
best advantage of the State.
7. No candidate will normally be permitted to resign whilst under training. However, Officer Cadet resigning after the
commencement of training may be allowed to proceed home pending acceptance of their resignation by HQ
ARTRAC. Cost of training, messing and allied services will be recovered from them before their departure. They and
their parents/guardians will be required to execute a bond to this effect before the candidates are allowed to join
Indian Military Academy. A Officer Cadet who is not considered suitable to complete the full course of training may
with permission of the Government, be discharged after paying the cost of Training laid down by the Govt. of India.
Service candidates under these circumstances will be reverted back to their parent Unit.
8. Commission will be granted only on successful completion of training. The date of commission will be that
following the date of successful completion of training. Commission will be permanent.
9. Pay and allowances, pensions, leave and other conditions of service after the grant of commission will be identified
with those applicable from time to time to regular officers of the army.
10. Training: At the Indian Military Academy Army Cadets, known as Officer Cadets, are given strenuous Military
training for a period of 18 months aimed at turning out, officers capable of leading infantry subunits. On successful
completion of training Officer Cadets are granted Permanent Commission in the rank of Lt. subject to being medically
fit, in S.H.A.P.E.
11. Army Group Insurance Fund (AGIF). The Officer Cadets when in receipt of stipend are insured for ₹ One Cr
as applicable to officers of the regular Army. Subscription at the rate of ₹ 10,000 will have to be paid in advance on
monthly basis by the Officer Cadets to become members under the AGI Scheme as applicable to Regular Army
Officers. For those who are invalidated out by IMB on account of disability and not entitled to any pension will be
provided ₹ 25 lakhs for 100 percent disability. This will be proportionately reduced to ₹ 5 lakhs for 20 percent
disability. However, for less than 20 percent disability, an ex-gratia grant of ₹ 50,000/- only will be paid. Disability
due to alcoholism, drug addiction and due to diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for disability benefit
and Ex-Gratia Grant. In addition, Officer Cadets withdrawn on disciplinary grounds, expelled as an undesirable or
leaving the Academy voluntarily will not be eligible for disability benefits and Ex-Gratia.
12. The following monetary benefits are available to the Cadets (Direct)/NoKs in the event of invalidment on medical
grounds/death of a Cadet (Direct) due to causes attributable to or aggravated by military training:
(a) In Case Of Disablement
(i) Monthly Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9,000/- per month.
(ii) Ex-gratia disability award @ Rs. 16200/- per month shall be payable in addition for 100% of disability
during period of disablement subject to prorata reduction in case the degree of disablement is less than
100%. No disability award shall be payable in cases where the degree of disablement is less than 20%.
(iii) Constant Attendant Allowance (CAA) @ Rs 6750/- per month for 100% disabled on the recommendation
of Invaliding Medical Board (IMB).
(b) IN CASE OF DEATH
(i) Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 12.5 lakhs to the NoK.
(ii) Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9000/- per month to the NoK.
(c) The Ex-gratia awards to Cadets (Direct) / NoK, shall be sanctioned purely on ex-gratia basis and the same shall
not be treated as pension for any purpose. However, dearness relief at applicable rates shall be granted on
monthly ex-gratia as well as ex-gratia disability award. (Authority: GOI/MOD letter
No.17(01)/2017(01)D(Pension/ Policy) dated 04 Sep 2017 as amended vide para 11 & 12 of GOI/MOD letter
No.17(02)/2016 D(Pen/Pol) dated04 Sep 2017.
13. Terms and Conditions of Service
(i) POSTING
Army officers are liable to serve anywhere in India and abroad.
(ii) PROMOTION
Substantive promotions
The following are the service limits for the grant of the substantive promotion to higher ranks.
By time scale :
Lt. On commission
Capt. On completion of 2 years of reckonable commissioned service
Major On completion of 6 years of reckonable commissioned service
Lt. Col. On completion of 13 years of reckonable commissioned service
Col (TS) On completion of 26 years of reckonable commissioned service
Col.
Brigadier
Major Gen.
Lt. Gen.
General
On Selection basis subject to
fulfilment of requisite service
conditions
(B) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY, EZHIMALA, KERALA
(i) Candidates selected for training at the Indian Naval Academy will be appointed as Cadets under the Graduate
Cadet Special Entry Scheme (GSES) Course. The Selection of the cadets is based on the candidate qualifying
in the Combined Defence Service Examination (CDSE), followed by SSB interview and Medical Examination.
Meritorious candidates who are medically fit are appointed to the32vacancies of Executive Branch (General
Service/ Hydro) (including 06 for Naval NCC ‘C’ certificate holding candidates under the NCC Special Entry
Scheme).
(ii) Selection of Cadets from the National Cadet Corps. The eligibility, age-limits, educational qualifications for
candidates applying under the NCC Special Entry Scheme are the same as the GSES candidates except for the
following:-
a) A NCC Cadet must have served for not less than three academic years in the Senior Division, Naval Wing
of the National Cadet Corps, and must be in possession of Certificate"C" (Naval). Those who have
appeared or intend to appear for certificate "C" examination are also eligible to apply but their final
selection shall depend on producing the Certificate before the commencement of the course.
b) The NCC Cadet must be in possession of a certificate of good conduct and character from his University
or Principal of his College.
c) A NCC Cadet shall not be eligible to apply after twelve months of leaving the Senior Division, Naval
Wing of the National Cadet Corps.
d) In order to apply, a cadet must submit his application to his Officer Commanding, N.C.C Unit, Naval
Wing, who shall forward it through the Circle Commander concerned to the N.C.C. Directorate, Ministry
of Defence, New Delhi. The N.C.C. Directorate will forward the applications to the Chief of the Naval
Staff. The applications shall be submitted on the prescribed form. These forms will be available at all
N.C.C. Units.
e) Candidates who are considered prima facie suitable shall be required to appear before a Service Selection
Board for interview and other tests.
f) Candidates to be finally selected should at least secure the minimum qualifying marks at the Services
Selection Board. Subject to this condition and to their being declared medically fit, successful candidates
shall be placed in the order of merit based on the total marks secured in the written examination and the
Service Selection Board interview. The final selection shall be made in the order of merit up to the
number of vacancies available.
(iii) Candidates, finally selected for training at the Academy will be appointed as cadets in the Executive Branch of
the Navy. A sum of Rs. 35,000/- should be brought by them and deposited in the bank account, which they
would be opening at the State Bank of India, Ezhimala branch, on arrival. Since it is a large amount, it is
advised that they carry a demand draft payable to self. The deposit money would be used to meet the following
expenditures:—
(a) Pocket/Personal expenses Rs. 5,000/-
@ Rs. 1,000/- per month
(b) Expenses on Laundry, Civilian- Rs. 4,250/-
bearer, Cinema, hair cutting and @ Rs. 850/- per month
other sundry services
(c) Expenses on stitching/purchase of Rs.20,000/-
Academy Blazer, Academy tie, Aca demy Mufti, Academy Sportswear,
Jogging shoes, Jungle boots, Swim ming Trunk/suits and Satchels.
(d) Travelling expenses for proceeding Rs. 2,000/-
to next duty station/home station
on leave on completion of Naval
Orientation Course on return
Journey at the end of the term.
(e) Insurance: The GSES cadets would have to pay Rs. 2303/-one time non-refundable contribution for an
Insurance cover of Rs. 20,00,000/- (Rupees twenty lakh only) for a period of six months. Their disability
cover and contribution if relegated would be at par with Non-GSES cadets (NGIF letter No. BA/GIS/215
dated 06 Nov 2018).
(iv) Training: Selected candidates may be appointed as cadets on reporting at the Indian Naval Academy.
The candidates shall remain under probation till completion of initial training which is as follows:-
(a) Naval Orientation Course at 44 weeks
INA, Ezhimala
(b) Officers Sea Training at Training Ship 06 months
(c) Sub-Lieutenant Afloat training 06 months
(d) Sub-Lieutenant (Technical course) 33 weeks
A float attachment for award of
(e) Full Naval watch-keeping Certificate 06-09 months
(v) Commissioning & Other Benefits The cadets shall be commissioned in the rank of Sub-Lieutenant after
successful completion of approximately 18 months of training. The careers prospects, leave benefits, leave and
travel concession, pensionary/retirements benefits and all such perks and privileges provided to officers in the
Navy is similar to those being provided by the two services.
(vi) The cost of training including accommodation and allied services, books, uniform, messing and medical
treatment of the cadets of the Indian Naval Academy will be borne by the Government. Parents or guardians of
cadets will, however, be required to meet their pocket and other private expenses while they are cadets. When a
cadet’s parent or guardian has an income less than Rs. 1500 per mensem and is unable to meet wholly or partly
the pocket expenses of the cadet financial assistance upto Rs.140 per mensem may be granted by the
Government. A candidate desirous of securing financial assistance may immediately after his selection, submit
an application through the District Magistrate of his District, who will with his recommendations, forward the
application to the Principal Director of Manpower Planning & Recruitment, Naval Headquarters, New
Delhi-110011.
Note: Further information, if desired, may be obtained from the Directorate of Manpower, Planning & Recruitment,
Naval Headquarters, New Delhi-110011.
(C) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY
1. There are three modes of entry in F(P) Course viz. CDSE/NCC Special Entry/AFCAT. Candidates who apply for
Air Force through more than one source will be tested/interviewed at Air Force Selection Boards as per type of entry.
Common candidate who fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) cannot be tested for flying branch in IAF.
2. Detailing for Training—Candidates recommended by the AFSBs and found medically fit by appropriate medical
establishment are detailed for training strictly on the basis of merit and availability of vacancies. Separate merit list
are prepared for Direct Entry candidates through UPSC and for NCC candidates. The merit list for Direct Entry
Flying (Pilot) candidates is based on the combined marks secured by the candidates in the tests conducted by the
UPSC and at the Air Force Selection Boards. The merit list for NCC candidates is prepared on the basis of marks
secured by them at AFSBs.
3. Training—The approximate duration of training for Flying Branch (Pilots) at the Air Force Academy will be 74
weeks.
Air Force Group Insurance Society would pay Rs 1,25,00,000 for a monthly contribution of Rs 8,600/ pm as
insurance cover to the next-of-kin of a flight cadet drawn from Civil life and undergoing flying training in an
unfortunate eventuality. In case flight cadet undergoing training is medically invalidated boarded out, he will be paid
Rs 62,50,000 as disability insurance cover for 100% disability and this reduces proportionately upto 20%.
Flight Cadets shall receive a fixed stipend of Rs. 56,100/- per month (starting pay in Level 10) for the period of
training. "On successful completion of training the stipend admitted will be converted as pay for all purposes.
However, the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service."
Once flight cadets are granted pay and allowances by government, the insurance cover will remain as above for a
monthly contribution of Rs 8,600/- pm. The Contribution comprises of Risk Element and Saving Element. The Saving
Element of Rs 5120/- out of Rs 8600/- will continue to earn interest and paid as Survival Benefit at the time of
Retirement.
4. Career Prospects :
After successful completion of training, the candidates pass out in the rank of Flying Officer and will be entitled to
the pay and allowances of the rank. Time scale promotions to the rank of Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing
Commander and Group Captain are granted on completion of 2 years, 6 years, 13 years and 26 years of successful
service respectively. Grant of Group Captain (select) and higher ranks is only by selections. Promising officers have a
fair chance of getting higher promotions to air ranks—Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal and Air Marshal.
5. Leave and Leave Travel Concession:
Annual Leave—60 days a year.
Casual Leave—20 days a year.
Officers are authorised encashment of Annual Leave upto 10 days alongwith LTC to the extent of a total 60 days
in a career span to cover incidental expenses on travel.
Officers when proceeding on annual/casual leave, irrespective of its duration, is entitled for free conveyance from
place of duty (unit) to home town and back once in the second year of his service for the first time and thereafter
every alternate year to any place in India in lieu of home town or selected place of residence without any distance
restriction.
In addition officers of Flying branch employed on regular Flying Duties in vacancies in authorised establishment
are allowed, while proceeding on leave once every year on warrant a free rail journey in the appropriate class upto a
total distance of 1600 kms. for the forward and return journeys both inclusive.
Officers when travelling on leave at their own expenses are entitled to travel by entitled class or lower class on
payment of 60 per cent of the fare for self, wife and children from unit to any place within India on 6 one-way journey
Form ‘D’ in a calender year. Two of these Form ‘D’ may be availed of for the entire family. In addition to wife and
children family includes parents, sisters and minor brothers residing with and wholly dependent upon the officers.
6. Other Privileges:
The officers and their families are entitled to free medical aid, accommodation on concessional rent, group
insurance scheme, group housing scheme, family assistance scheme, canteen facilities etc.
(D) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE OFFICERS TRAINING ACADEMY, CHENNAI
1. Before the candidate join the Officers Training Academy Chennai.
(a) He/she will be required to sign a certificate to the effect that he/she fully understands that he/she or his/her legal
heirs shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government in respect of any injury
which he/she may sustain in the course of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death results in the
course of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon or anaesthesia administered to him/her for the
treatment of any injury received as aforesaid or otherwise.
(b) His/her parent or guardian will be required to sign a bond to the effect that if for any reason considered within
his/her control, the candidate wishes to withdraw before the completion of the course or fails to accept a commission
if offered or marries while under training at the Officers’ Training Academy, he/she will be liable to refund the whole
or such portion of the cost of tuition, food, clothing and pay & allowances, received as may be decided upon by
Government.
2. Candidates finally selected will undergo a course of training at the Officers’ Training Academy, for an approximate
period of 49 weeks. Candidates will be enrolled as Officer Cadets. Officer Cadets will be dealt with the ordinary
disciplinary purposes under the rules and regulations of the Officers’ Training Academy.
3. While, the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be
borne by the government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expenses themselves.
The minimum expenses during the pre commission training are not likely to exceed Rs. 200/- per month but if the
cadets pursue, any hobbies such as photography, hiking etc. they may require additional money. In case however, the
cadet is unable to meet wholly or partly even the minimum expenditure, financial assistance at rates which are subject
to change from time to time, may be given provided the cadet and his/her parent/guardian, have an income below Rs.
1500 per month. A candidate desirous of having financial assistance should immediately after being finally selected
for training submit an application on the prescribed form through the District Magistrate of his/her district who will
forward the application to the Commandant, Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai alongwith his/her Verification
report.
4. Candidates finally selected for training, at the Officers’ Training Academy, will be required to deposit the
following amount with the Commandant on arrival :
(a) Pocket allowance for three month Rs. 3,000/-
@ Rs. 1,000 per month
(b) For items of clothing and Rs. 5,000/-
equipment
(c) Group Insurance Coverage Rs. 10,000/-
for 02 months (AGIF)
Total Rs. 18,000/-
Out of the amount mentioned above the amount mentioned in (b) above is refundable to the Cadets in the event of
financial assistance being sanctioned to them.
5. Outfit allowance will be admissible under order as may be issued from time to time. On being granted a
commission, articles of clothing and necessaries purchased from this allowance shall become the personal property of
the cadet. Such articles, will however be withdrawn from a cadet who resigns while under training or who is removed
or withdrawn prior to commissioning. The article withdrawn will be disposed of to the best advantage of the State.
6. No candidate will normally be permitted to resign whilst under training. However, Officer Cadets resigning after
the commencement of training may be allowed to proceed home pending acceptance of their resignation by HQ
ARTRAC. Cost of training, messing and allied services will be recovered from them before their departure. They and
their parents/guardians will be required to execute a bond to this effect before the candidates are allowed to join
Officers’ Training Academy.
7. On joining OTA, cadets will be allowed to apply and proceed for civil central job interview/SSB in the first term of
the training only. However, no cost of training including messing charges will be recovered from these Officer
Cadets, who may resign from the Officers Training Academy, Chennai to undergo pre-commission training at the
Indian Military Academy, Dehradun or corresponding cadet training establishment in Navy and Air Force, if so
selected.
8. An Officer Cadet who is not considered suitable to complete the full course of training may, with permission of
Government, be discharged after paying cost of training laid down by the Government of India. An Army candidate
under these circumstances will be reverted to his Regiment or Corps.
NOTE. Candidates reporting to Indian Military Academy (IMA) and Officer Training Academy (OTA)
are required to meet the following Physical Standards:-
+-------+------------+--------------------------+--------------------------+
| Ser | Activity | Minimum Physical | Standards on Arrival |
| No | | | |
| | | Office Cadet (Men) | Officer Cadet (Women) |
+=======+============+--------------------------+--------------------------+
| (a) | 2.4 Km Run | 10 Minutes 30 Second | 13 Minutes |
+-------+------------+--------------------------+--------------------------+
| (b) | Push Up | 40 | 15 |
+-------+------------+--------------------------+--------------------------+
| (c) | Pull UP | 06 | 02 |
+-------+------------+--------------------------+--------------------------+
| (d) | Sit Up | 30 | 25 |
+-------+------------+--------------------------+--------------------------+
| (e) | Squats | Two Sets of 30 | Repetitions |
+-------+------------+--------------------------+--------------------------+
| (f) | Lunges | Two Sets of 10 | Repetitions |
+-------+------------+--------------------------+--------------------------+
| (g) | Swimming | Should know fundamentals | of swimming |
+-------+------------+--------------------------+--------------------------+
9. Training :
Selected candidates will be enrolled as Officer Cadets and will undergo a course of training at the Officers’
Academy for an approximate period of 49 Weeks. On successful completion of training Officer Cadets are granted
Short Service Commission in the rank of Lt. from the date of successful completion of training. University of Madras
will award "Post Graduate Diploma in Defence Management and Strategic Studies" to all cadets who successfully
complete Pre-commissioning training at Officers Training Academy, Chennai. Candidates withdrawn from Officers'
Training Academy on disciplinary grounds are not eligible to apply.
10. Terms and conditions of Services:
(a) Period of probation:
An officer will be on probation for a period of 6 months from the date he/she receives his/her commission. If
he/she is reported on within the probationary period as unsuitable to retain his/her commission, he/she may be
terminated any time whether before or after the expiry of the probationary period.
(b) Liability of Service:
Personnel granted Short Service Commission is liable to serve anywhere in India and abroad on selected
appointments as decided by IHQ MOD (Army) from time to time.
(c) Tenure of Appointment:
Short Service Commission will be granted to Male and Female in the regular Army for 14 years i.e. for an initial
period of 10 years extendable by a further period of 04 years. Male and Female officers who are willing to continue to
serve in the Army after the expiry of period of ten years Short Service Commission may, if eligible and suitable in all
respects, be considered for the grant of Permanent Commission in the 10thyear of their Short Service Commission in
accordance with the relevant policies as issued from time to time.
Those SSC officers (Male and Female) who are not selected for grant of PC but are otherwise considered fit and
suitable, will be given options to continue as SSCOs for a total period of 14 years (including the initial tenure of 10
years) on expiry of which they will be released from the Army.
(d) Special Provision for Release for SSC on completion of 5th Year of Service:
SSC (Non-Tech) Male & Female Officers, other than those who undergone or are undergoing Degree Engineering
Course or any other specialized course of such nature, who are desirous of leaving the service after completion of five
years service, may, during the fifth year of service, apply to the Army HQs, for release. Army HQ will consider the
applications of such officers on merits and the decision of the Army HQ will be final and irrevocable. On approval of
such officers will be released from service on completion of 5th year of service. Those SSC (Non-Tech) Male &
Female Officers who have undergone or are undergoing Degree Engineering Course or any other specialised course
of such nature, will not be released before expiry of full tenure of 14 years unless the cost of training of such
specialized course as prescribed is recovered from them. The Combat Aviation Course which is mandatory for
Aviators is specialized course for Short Service Commissioned Officers. They will be required to execute a bond to
this effect on being nominated for undertaking Degree Engineering Course/Special Course of such nature.
(e) Special Provisions during Extended Tenure:
During extended tenure, they will be permitted to seek release from the Army on the following grounds:—
(i) Taking up civil Job.
(ii) Pursuing higher education.
(iii) Starting own business/joining family business.
(f) Substantive Promotion :
SSCOs male and female granted Short Service Commission under these rules will be eligible for substantive
promotion as under:—
(i) To the rank on completion of 2 years
of Capt. reckonable commissioned service
(ii) To the rank of on completion of 6 years
Major reckonable commissioned service.
(iii) To the rank of on completion of 13 years
Lt. Col. reckonable commissioned service.
(g) Mandatory Conditions:
Mandatory conditions for grant of above substantive ranks laid down for Permanent Commissioned officers as well as
the eligibility, time limit and penalties for promotions exam Part B and D as applicable to permanent commission
officers also be similarly applicable to SSCOs male and female.
(h) Adjustment of Seniority:
To make adjustment for shorter training of SSC male and female vis-a vis PC officers, the seniority of SSC male and
female officers will be depressed by the period corresponding to the difference in training period between the SSC
course under consideration and the training period of its equivalent PC Course. This adjustment of seniority will be
carried out at the time of grant of first substantive rank of captain. The revised seniority will have no effect on the
pay and allowances granted in the rank of Capt. Major and Lt.Col.
(i) Reckonable Commissioned Service:
Subject to provision of Para 10 (h) above, reckonable commissioned service for the purpose of these orders will count
from the date of grant of Short Service Commission to an officer. The period of service forfeited by sentence of
Court Martial or any summary award under the Army Act and the period of absence without leave will not be
reckonable. The period during which furlough rates of pay are drawn and the period of captivity at POWs rates of
pay will be reckonable. The period of service for promotion lost by an officer in consequence of his/her having been
granted leave without pay will also be reckonable. Such an officer will, however, become entitled to the pay and
allowances of the higher substantive rank granted by the inclusion of this period only from the date on which he/she
would have qualified by service if this period had not been so reckoned and not with effect from the date of grant of
substantive rank.
(j) Leave: Leave will be admissible in accordance with the Leave Rules for the Service Vol. 1-Army as amended
from time to time.
For leave, officers will be governed by rules applicable to Short Service Commission officers as given in Chapter IV
of the Leave Rules for the Service Vol.I-Army. They will also be entitled to leave on passing out of the Officers
Training Academy and before assumption of duties under the provision of the Rule 69 ibid.
SSC Women Officers will also be eligible for following kinds of Leave:
• Maternity Leave: Women Officers of the Army – Rule 56 of Chapter-IV of Leave Rule for the Services
Vol.I-Army, Fourth Edition.
• Child Care Leave:Women Officers of the Army – Rule 56A of Chapter-IV of Leave Rules for the Services
Vol.I-Army, Fourth Edition as amended vide GOI MoD letter No.B/33922/AG/PS-2(b)/3080/D(AG-II) dated
19 Nov 2018.
• Child Adoption Leave:Women Officers of the Army – Rule 56B of Chapter-IV of Leave Rules for the
Services Vol.I-Army, Fourth Edition.
(k) Termination of Commission
The Commission of an officer may be terminated at any time by the Government of India for the following reasons:-
(i) For misconduct or if services are found to be unsatisfactory: or
(ii) on account of medical unfitness; or
(iii) if his/her services are no longer required or
(iv) if he/she fails to qualify in any prescribed test or course.
An officer may on giving 3 months notice be permitted to resign his/her commission on compassionate grounds of
which the Government of India will be the sole judge. An officer who is permitted to resign his/her commission on
compassionate grounds will not be eligible for terminal gratuity.
(l) Terminal Gratuity:
SSCO recruited from civil side are entitled to terminal gratuity @ 1/2 months emoluments for each completed six
monthly period of service.
(m) Reserve Liability:
On being released on the expiry of contractual length of service of Short Service Commission or extension thereof (as
the case may be) they will carry a reserve liability for a period of five years plus two years on voluntary basis or upto
the age of 40 years in case of Male Officers and 37 years in case of Women Officers which is earlier.
(n) Miscellaneous:
All other terms and conditions of service where not at variance with the above provisions will be the same as for
regular officers.