NDA Exam

REGD. No. D. L.-33004/99 The Gazette of India EXTRAORDINARY PART 1—Section III PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY CG-DL-E-07062025-263669 No. 01] NEW DELHI, THURSDAY, JUNE 5, 2025/ JYAISTHA 15, 1947 MINISTRY OF DEFENCE NOTIFICATION New Delhi, the 28th May, 2025 RULES No.B/51725/156/Rtg(NDAEntry)/17(1)/2025- DMA(AG-II):––The rules for the Competitive Examination viz National Defence Academy & Naval Academy Examination (II), 2025 to be held by Union Public Service Commission on 14th September, 2025 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 156th Course and for the 118th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 1st July 2026 are published. The date of holding the examination as mentioned above may be changed, if so required, at the discretion of the Commission. The approximate number of vacancies to be filled on the results of this examination will be as under:— +-----------------------------------+----------------------------------------+ | National Defence | Army 208 (including 10 for female candidates) | | Academy: | Navy 42 (including 05 for female candidates) | | | Air Force (i) Flying – 92 | | | (including 02 for female candidates) | | | (ii) Ground Duties (Tech) – 18 | | | (including 02 for female candidates) | | | (iii) Ground Duties (Non Tech) – 10| | | (including 02 for female candidates) | +-----------------------------------+----------------------------------------+ | Naval Academy | 36 (including 04 for female candidates) | | (10+2 Cadet Entry | | | Scheme): | | +-----------------------------------+----------------------------------------+ | Total | 406 (including 25 for female candidates) | +-----------------------------------+----------------------------------------+ Note : Indian Army Publishes the vacancies for Men and Women separately for various services and Entries keeping into account the operational and administrative needs of the force as envisaged in the existing and future scenarios. Though the vacancies for men and women categories for all services of NDA/Naval Academy are being notified through common Notification and tested through a common written examination for administrative purpose, NDA/Naval Academy men and women are separate entries and selection for both these categories is done separately but in a gender pure manner as per vacancies notified. THE PREPARATION OF WRITTEN RESULTS AND FINAL MERIT LISTS FOR MEN AND WOMEN IN NDA/NAVAL ACADEMY MEN AND WOMEN CATEGORIES WILL ALSO BE DONE SEPARATELY AS PER VACANCY NOTIFIED. The number of vacancies given in the Commission’s Examination Notice is provisional and may be changed depending on the availability of training capacity of National Defence Academy and Indian Naval Academy. Candidate shall be required to mandatorily indicate order of preferences only for those services for which he/she is interested to be allocated to, in the online application. No request for addition/alteration in the preferences/order of preferences once submitted in the online application by a candidate will be entertained. The order of preference may be indicated in the following manner: 1 to 4. 2. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY: (a) Nationality: A candidate must be unmarried male/female and must be: (i) a citizen of India, or (ii)a subject of Nepal, or (iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal. (b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status: Only unmarried male/female candidates born not earlier than 01st January 2007 and not later than 01st January 2010 are eligible. The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Secondary School Examination or an equivalent examination certificates. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above. NOTE 1: Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate available or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted. NOTE 2: Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been claimed by them in the Online Application form and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever. NOTE 3: The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the respective column of the Online Application Form for the Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules. NOTE 4: The candidates should also note that no addition/deletion/any changes are allowed in Universal Registration profile/module of the online application form in the NDA & NA Examination in any circumstances once it is submitted. NOTE 5: Those candidates, who have failed CPSS/PABT (Computerized Pilot Selection System/Pilot Aptitude Battery Test) earlier, are now eligible for Air Force in Ground Duty branches if they fill their willingness in the Online Application Form available at the Commission’s website. (d) Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2025 as per guidelines given in the Appendix-II. (e) A candidate who has resigned or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from any of the training academies of Armed Forces is not eligible to apply. 3. FEE Candidates (excepting SC/ST/female candidates, wards of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in the Commission’s Notice) must pay the fee as prescribed in the Commission’s Examination Notice. The wards of serving/ex-Junior Commissioned Officers/Non-Commissioned Officers/Other Ranks of Army and equivalent ranks in the Indian Navy/Indian Air Force are also not required to pay the prescribed fee if they are studying in Military School (formerly known as King George's School)/Sainik School run by Sainik Schools Society. A certificate of eligibility for fee exemption is required to be obtained by all such candidates from the Principals concerned individually and produced for verification at the time of SSB Test/Interview by the candidates who are declared qualified for the SSB Test/Interview. 9. (1) If any of their claims is found to be incorrect/false/fraud/fabricated they may render themselves liable to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of the following provisions: A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission or respective service HQ to be guilty of:- (a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:— (i) offering illegal gratification to; or (ii) applying pressure on; or (iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or (b) impersonation; or (c) procuring impersonation by any person; or (d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with; or (e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photos/signature in the application form in place of actual photo/signature. (f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or (g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely :— (i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; (ii)finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination; (iii)influencing the examiners; or (h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or (i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or (j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or (k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of their examination; or (l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone (even in switched-off mode) pager or any other incriminating material (notes on e-admit cards, papers, erasers etc.) or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches/digital watches etc. or camera or bluetooth devices or IT gadgets, any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched-off mode) capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or (m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to take the examination; or (n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses; in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination held under these Rules, and /or shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period:- (i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them; (ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them; And shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service under Government. Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:— (i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and (ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed for the purpose, into consideration. 9. (2) Any person who is found by the Commission or respective service HQ to be guilty of colluding with a candidate (s) in committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at Clauses (a) to (m) above render himself/herself liable to action in terms of the Clause (n). 10. TRAVELLING ALLOWANCE: Candidates appearing for SSB interview for the first time for a particular type of Commission i.e. Permanent or Short Service, shall be entitled for AC III Tier to and fro railway fare or bus fare including reservation cum sleeper charges within the Indian limits. Candidates who apply again for the same type of Commission will not be entitled to travelling allowance on any subsequent occasion. 11. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE ARMY/NAVY/AIR FORCE HEADQUARTERS: All Communications to the ARMY/NAVY/AIR HEADQUARTERS should invariably contain the following particulars. 1. Name and year of the examination. 2. Application ID 3. Roll Number (if received). 4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters). 5. Postal Address as given in the application. 6. VALID AND ACTIVE E-MAIL ID/Mobile Number N.B. (i) : Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to. N.B. (ii) : If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has been held and it does not give his/her full name and roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be taken thereon. Candidates recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection Board who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their applications for the examination should immediately after announcement of the result of the written part of the examination notify the changed address also to:— For candidates with Army as first choice—Army Headquarters, A.G’s Branch, RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066, Phone No. 26175473. For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice— Naval Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, OI&R Section, R. No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011, Phone No. 23010097/23011282. For candidates with Air Force as first choice Dte of Personnel(Officers), Air Headquarters, (VB) Room No 838. `A’ Block, Defence Offices Complex, Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001 Phone No. 23010231 Extn 7645/7646/7610. FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THIS INSTRUCTION WILL DEPRIVE THE CANDIDATE OF ANY CLAIM TO CONSIDERATION IN THE EVENT OF HIS/HER NOT RECEIVING THE SUMMONS LETTER FOR INTERVIEW BY THE SERVICES SELECTION BOARD. AFTER HAVING CLEARED THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION THE CANDIDATES SHOULD LOG ON TO THE FOLLOWING WEBSITES FOR THEIR SSB CENTRE & DATE OF INTERVIEW:- www.joinindianarmy.nic.in www.joinindiannavy.gov.in The candidates with Air Force as first choice are also to register on www.joinindianarmy.nic.in for AFSB and date selection. 12. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES, ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES: The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion. Such candidates shall appear before a Services Selection Board for Intelligence and Personality Test where candidates for the Army/Navy wings of the NDA and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be assessed on Officers Potentiality and those for the Air Force in addition to the above will have to qualify Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS). Candidates with Air Force as one of the choice would also undergo CPSS if they qualify SSB and are willing. 13. TWO-STAGE SELECTION PROCEDURE Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and Intelligence Test has been introduced at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage-one test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards. Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests. Those candidates who qualify stage II will be required to submit the Original Certificates along with one photocopy each of: (i) Original Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Original 10+2 pass certificate or equivalent in support of educational qualification. Candidates who appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there, will do so at their own risk and will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise. Parents or guardians of the candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect. To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/Navy/Naval Academy and Air Force should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i) Written examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion and (ii) Officer Potentiality Test as fixed by the Services Selection Board at their discretion. Over and above candidates for the Air Force, and all the SSB qualified candidates as per their willingness, eligibility and preference for flying branch of Air Force, should separately qualify the CPSS. Subject to these conditions the qualified candidates will then be placed in a single combined list on the basis of total marks secured by them in the Written Examination and the Services Selection Board Tests. The final allocation/selection for admission to the Army, Navy, Air Force of the National Defence Academy and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be made upto the number of vacancies available subject to eligibility, medical fitness and merit-cum-preference of the candidates. The candidates who are eligible to be admitted to multiple Services/Courses will be considered for allocation/selection with reference to their order or preferences and in the event of their final allocation/ selection to one Service/Course, they will not be considered for admission to other remaining Services/Courses. N.B.: EVERY CANDIDATE FOR THE FLYING BRANCH OF AIR FORCE IS GIVEN COMPUTERISED PILOT SELECTION SYSTEM (CPSS) (PILOT APTITUDE TEST) ONLY ONCE. THE GRADES SECURED BY HIM/HER AT THE FIRST TEST WILL THEREFORE HOLD GOOD FOR EVERY SUBSEQUENT INTERVIEW HE/SHE HAS WITH THE AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARD. A CANDIDATE WHO FAILS IN THE CPSS CANNOT APPLY FOR ADMISSION TO THE NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAMINATION FOR THE FLYING BRANCH OF AIR FORCE WING OR GENERAL DUTIES (PILOT) BRANCH OR NAVAL AIR ARM. Candidates who have been given the Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) for any previous N.D.A. course should submit their application for this examination for the Air Force Wing only if they have been notified as having qualified in CPSS. In case a candidate has failed in CPSS/not tested for CPSS for being HWG (Habitual Wearer of Glasses), the candidate would be considered for Ground Duty branch of IAF, Navy, Army and NAVAC as per his/her choices. The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission at their discretion and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding the result. Success in the examination confers no right of admission to the Academy. A candidate must satisfy the appointing authority that he/she is suitable in all respects for admission to the Academy. Marks obtained by the candidates shall be rounded off up to two decimal digits, at all stage(s) of the examination, by applying the standard rounding off principle, wherever applicable. Accordingly, while applying the tie-breaking principles, the rounded-off marks upto two decimal digits shall be considered for resolving all tie cases. (i) If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing more marks in written total will be ranked higher. (ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidate securing more marks in “Paper-II : General Ability Test” will be ranked higher; and (iii) If the marks at (i) and (ii) above are also equal, the candidate senior in age will be ranked higher. 14. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSE: Candidates, who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy, or to the 10 + 2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy but were removed there from for lack of officer-like qualities or on disciplinary grounds will not be admitted to the Academy. Candidates, who were previously withdrawn from the National Defence Academy or Indian Naval Academy on medical grounds or left the above Academy voluntarily are however, eligible for admission to the Academy provided they satisfy the medical and other prescribed conditions. 15. The details regarding (a) the scheme and syllabus of the examination, (b) Physical standards for admission to the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy and (c) Brief particulars of the service etc., for candidates joining the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy are given in Appendices I, II and III respectively. ANIL KUMAR CHHAPOLIA , Jt Secy. (Estt & Coord) APPENDIX-I (The Scheme and Syllabus of Examination) A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION 1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:— +--------------------------+----------+-------------+-------------+ | Subject | Code | Duration | Maximum | | | | | Marks | +==========================+==========+=============+=============+ | Mathematics | 01 | 2½ Hours | 300 | +--------------------------+----------+-------------+-------------+ | General Ability Test | 02 | 2½ Hours | 600 | +--------------------------+----------+-------------+-------------+ | Total | | | 900 | +--------------------------+----------+-------------+-------------+ | SSB Test/Interview: | | | 900 | +--------------------------+----------+-------------+-------------+ 2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH. 3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set. 4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them. 5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination. 6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall. B. SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION PAPER-I MATHEMATICS (Code No. 01) (Maximum Marks-300) 1. ALGEBRA Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation. Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers— basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and their applications. 2. MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS: Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method. 3. TRIGONOMETRY: Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications Height and distance, properties of triangles. 4. ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS: Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a three dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and angle between two planes. Equation of a sphere. 5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS: Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples. Continuity of functions— examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications. Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima. 6. INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS: Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves— applications. Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples. General and particular solution of a differential equations, solution of first order and first degree differential equations of various types—examples. Application in problems of growth and decay. 7. VECTOR ALGEBRA: Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of two vectors. Vector product or cross product of two vectors. Applications—work done by a force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems. 8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY: Statistics: Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution— examples. Graphical representation— Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon— examples. Measures of Central tendency— Mean, median and mode. Variance and standard deviation— determination and comparison. Correlation and regression. Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of probability—classical and statistical— examples. Elementary theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution. PAPER-II GENERAL ABILITY TEST (Code No. 02) (Maximum Marks—600) Part ‘A’—ENGLISH (Maximum Marks—200) The question paper in English will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding of English and workman like use of words. The syllabus covers various aspects like : Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English. Part ‘B’—GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks—400) The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover the subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events. The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects included in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature not specifically mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked. Candidate’s answers are expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject. Section ‘A’ (Physics) Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer. Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of transference of Heat. Sound waves and their properties, Simple musical instruments. Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye. Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet. Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Non-conductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays. General Principles in the working of the following: Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, Mariner’s Compass; Lightening Conductors, Safety Fuses. Section ‘B’ (Chemistry) Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems). Properties of Air and Water. Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. Carbon—different forms. Fertilizers—Natural and Artificial. Material used in the preparation of substances like Soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety Matches and Gun-Powder Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency. Section ‘C’ (General Science) Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of Life—Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals. Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs. Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention. Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet. The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses. Achievements of Eminent Scientists. Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.) A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation. Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi. Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution, Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science and Technology on Society. Concept of one World, United Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy, Socialism and Communism. Role of India in the present world. Section ‘E’ (Geography) The Earth, its shape and size. Latitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects. Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides. Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation; Types of Climate, Major Natural regions of the World. Regional Geography of India—Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities. Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of Imports and Exports of India. Section ‘F’ (Current Events) Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years. Current important world events. Prominent personalities—both Indian and International including those connected with cultural activities and sports. NOTE : Out of maximum marks assigned to part ‘B’ of this paper, questions on Sections ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’ and ‘F’ will carry approximately 25%, 15%, 10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weightages respectively. Intelligence and Personality Test The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are : (a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception and Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT. (b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the tests. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage. APPENDIX-II GUIDELINES FOR PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ADMISSION TO THE NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY. NOTE: CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSICALLY AND MENTALLY FIT ACCORDING TO THE PRESCRIBED PHYSICAL STANDARDS. MEDICAL FITNESS CRITERIA GIVEN BELOW ARE AS PER EXISTING GUIDELINES AS ON DATE OF PUBLICATION AND THESE GULIDELINES ARE SUBJECT TO REVISION. A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ARE REJECTED SUBSEQUENTLY ON MEDICAL GROUNDS. CANDIDATES ARE THEREFORE ADVISED IN THEIR OWN INTEREST TO GET THEMSELVES MEDICALLY EXAMINED BEFORE SUBMITTING THEIR APPLICATIONS TO AVOID DISAPPOINTMENT AT THE FINAL STAGE. 1. Candidates are also advised to rectify minor defects/ailments in order to speed up finalisation of medical examination conducted at the Military Hospital after being recommended at the SSB. 2. Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below: (a) Wax (Ears) (b) Deviated Nasal Septum (c) Hydrocele/Phimosis (d) Overweight/Underweight (e) Under Sized Chest (f) Piles (g) Gynaecomastia (h) Tonsillitis (i) Varicocele NOTE: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e. from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand/Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis. Comdt Selection Centre will be competent auth for clearing such cases. 3. Civilian candidates appearing for all types of commission in the Armed Forces will be entitled to out-patients treatment from service sources at public expense for injuries sustained or diseases contracted during the course of their examination by the Selection Board. They will also be entitled to in-patient treatment at public expense in the Officer’s ward of a hospital provided— (a) the injury is sustained during the tests or, (b) the disease is contracted during the course of the examination by selection board and there is no suitable accommodation in local civil hospital or it is impracticable to remove the patient to the civil hospital; or, (c) the medical board requires the candidate’s admission for observation. NOTE: They are not entitled to special nursing. 4. Medical Procedure A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only those candidates will be admitted to the academy who are declared fit by the Medical Board. The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential and will not be divulged to anyone. However, the candidates declared unfit will be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and the procedure for request for an Appeal Medical Board will also be intimated to the candidate. 5. Candidates declared unfit during Appeal Medical Board will be intimated about the provision of Review Medical Board. 6. Medical Standards and procedure for Army, Navy and Air Force (Flying Branch and Ground Duty Branch) are given in Annexure ‘A’. Annexure ‘B’ and Annexure ‘C’ respectively, which is also available at following websites:- (i) For Officers Entry into Army Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination at www.joinindianarmy.nic.in (ii) For Officers Entry for Air Force (flying & Ground duty branches) Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination at www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in (iii)For Officers Entry for Navy: Medical Standards and Medical Examination at www.joinindiannavy.gov.in Note: The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential will not be divulged to anyone. Directorate General of Recruiting has no role to play in any Medical Boards and procedure advised by the competent medical authorities will be strictly adhered. MEDICAL EXAMINATION OF FEMALE CANDIDATES 1. General methods and principles of medical examination of female candidates will be the same as for male candidates. However, special points pertaining to Medical Examination of female candidates are given in succeeding paragraphs. 2. A detailed menstrual, gynaecological and obstetric history in the form of a questionnaire is to be obtained from the candidate. 3. A detailed physical and systemic examination will be carried out of the candidate and she should be examined by a Lady Medical Officer or a Lady Gynecologist only. 4. The examination must include the following inspections:- (a) External genitalia. (b) Hernial orifices and the perineum. (c) Any evidence of stress urinary incontinence or genital prolapsed outside introitus. (d) Evidence of lump breast and galactorrhoea 5. In all unmarried female candidates, speculum or per vaginal examination will not be carried out. 6. Ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis is mandatory in all female candidates during the initial Medical Examination. 7. Any abnormality of external genitalia will be considered on merits of each case. Significant hirsutism especially with male pattern of hair growth along with radiological evidence of PCOS, will be a cause for rejection. 8. Following conditions will entail female candidates being declared unfit: (a) Primary or secondary amenorrhoea (b) Severe Menorrhagia or/ and severe dysmenorrhea. (c) Stress urinary incontinence (d) Congenital elongation of cervix or prolapsed which comes outside the introitus even after corrective surgery. (e) Pregnancy. Pregnancy will be a cause of rejection for NDA entry. (f) Complex ovarian cyst of any size. (g) Simple ovarian cyst more than six cm. (h) Endometriosis and Adenomyosis. (i) Submucous fibroid of any size. (j) Broad ligament or cervical fibroid of any size causing pressure over ureter. (k) Single fibroid uterus more than three cm in diameter; fibroids more than two in number (each fibroid not more than fifteen mm in diameter) or fibroids causing distortion of endometrial cavity. (l) Congenital uterine anomalies except arcuate uterus. (m) Acute or chronic pelvic infection. (n) Disorders of sexual differentiation. (o) Any other condition will be considered on merits of each case by the Gynaecologist. 9. Following conditions will be declared as FIT:- (a) Unilocular clear ovarian cyst up to six cm. (b) Minimal fluid in pouch of Douglas. 10. Medical fitness after laparoscopic surgery or laparotomy. Candidates reporting after undergoing cystectomy or myomectomy will be accepted as fit if she is asymptomatic, ultrasound pelvis is normal, histopathology of tissues removed is benign and per operative findings are not suggestive of endometriosis. Fitness will be considered twelve weeks after laparoscopic surgery and when the wound has healed fully. Candidate will be considered FIT after laprotomy one year after the surgical procedure. Annexure -A MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO ARMY 1. Introduction: (a) The primary responsibility of the Armed Forces is defending territorial integrity of the nation. For this purpose Armed Forces should always be prepared for war. Armed Forces personnel undergo rigorous training in preparation for war. Armed Forces also assist civil authorities if required whenever the need arises like in the case of disasters. To carry out such tasks Armed Forces requires candidates with robust mental and physical health. Such candidates should also be capable of withstanding rigorous stress and strain of service conditions to perform their military duties in adverse terrain and uncongenial climate incl sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical facilities. A medically unfit individual due to disease/disability can not only drain precious resources but can also jeopardize lives of other members of the team during operations. Therefore only medically fit candidates are selected who emerge fit to be trained for war. (b) The Armed Forces Medical Services are responsible for ensuring selection of ‘Medically Fit’ individuals into the Armed Forces. (c) All Armed Forces personnel regardless of occupational specialty, unit assignment, age or gender should have a basic level of general ‘Medical fitness’ when inducted into service. This basic level of fitness can then be used as a benchmark to train personnel for further physically demanding occupational specialties or unit assignments. This will enhance deployable combat readiness. (d) Medical examinations are carried out meticulously by Armed Forces Medical Services Medical Officers. These Medical Officers are well oriented to specific working conditions of Armed Forces after undergoing basic military training. Medical examinations are finalized by the Board of Medical Officers. The decision of the Medical Board is final. In case of any doubt about any disease/disability/injury/genetic disorder etc noticed during enrolment/ commissioning, the benefit of doubt will be given to State. Medical Standards. 2. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are general guidelines. They are not exhaustive in view of the vast knowledge of disease. These standards are subject to change with advancement in the scientific knowledge and change in working conditions of Armed Forces due to introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes will be promulgated from time to time by policy letters by competent authorities. Medical Officers, Spl Medical Officers and Medical Boards will take appropriate decisions based on following guidelines and principles. 3. To be deemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/syndrome/disability likely to interfere with the efficient performance of military duties in any terrain, climate, season incl sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical aid. Candidate also should be free of medical conditions which require frequent visit to medical facilities and use of any aid / drugs. (a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health. There should be no evidence of weak constitution, imperfect development of any system, any congenital deformities/ diseases/syndrome or malformation. (b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s anywhere on the body. No sinus/es or fistula/e anywhere on the body. (c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other disease/syndrome/disability of the skin. (d) No hernia anywhere on the body. (e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause significant disfigurement. (f) No arterio-venous malformation anywhere in/on the body. (g) No malformation of the head and face including asymmetry, deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of the skull; or scars indicating old operative interference and malformation like sinuses and fistulae etc. (h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and field of vision. (j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears vestibule-cochlear system. (k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology. (l) No disease/disability/ congenital anomaly/syndrome of the bones or cartilages of the nose, or palate, nasal polyps or disease of the naso-Pharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses. There should be no nasal deformity and no features of chronic tonsillitis. (m) No disease /syndrome/disability of the throat, palate tonsils or gums or any disease or injury affecting the normal function of either mandibular joint. (n) No disease /