Full Text
REGD. No. D. L.-33004/99
The Gazette of India
CG-DL-E-03122025-268203
EXTRAORDINARY
PART I—Section 1
PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY
No. 357] NEW DELHI, WEDNESDAY, DECEMBER 3, 2025/AGRAHAYANA 12, 1947
MINISTRY OF HOME AFFAIRS
NOTIFICATION
New Delhi, the 3rd December, 2025
RULES
F. No. 45012/20/2025-Pers.I.—The Rules for a Limited Departmental Competitive
Examination to be held by the Union Public Service Commission in 2026 for the purpose of
filling vacancies of Assistant Commandants (Executive) in Central Industrial Security Force
(CISF) for the vacancy year 2026 are published for general information. The final selection
of the candidates will be subject to the final outcome of the Writ Petition (Civil)
No. 5877/2022 filed by Diwakar Pande & Ors. Vs. Ministry of Home Affairs & Ors. in the
High Court of Delhi at New Delhi.
1. The number of vacancies to be filled on the results of the examination will be specified
in the Notice issued by the Commission. Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to
the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the
Government.
2. The examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission in the
manner prescribed in Appendix I to these rules.
The dates on which and the places at which the examination will be held, shall be fixed
by the Commission.
3. The candidates should have completed four (04) years of regular service as on 01st
January of the year of the exam in the rank of Sub. Inspector (GD)/Inspector (GD) including
the period of basic training and should have clean record of service i.e. should not have been
imposed with any minor punishment as mentioned in Rule-34 (vi-x) of CISF Rules, 2001
for last 4 years till issue of offer of appointment and/or any Major punishment under
Rule-34(i-v) of CISF Rules, 2001 during the entire service.
4. A candidate must not have attained the age of 35 years on the 01st August, 2026 i.e.
he/she must have been born not earlier than 02nd August, 1991 However, the upper age limit
prescribed above shall be relaxable up to a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a
Schedule Caste or a Schedule Tribe.
SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE
BE RELAXED.
5. Every candidate appearing at the examination who is otherwise eligible, shall be
permitted three attempts at the examination.
6. The Educational Qualification for appearing in the Limited Departmental Competitive
Examination will be a Graduation from a recognized University.
7. Possession of NCC‘B' or ‘C’Certificate will be a desirable qualification. These
desirable qualifications will be given consideration at the time of interview/Personality Test
only.
8. Candidates must meet the prescribed Physical and Medical standards for admission to
the Limited Departmental Competitive Examination for selection of Assistant Commandant
(Executive) in CISF,2026 specified in Appendix-II of these Rules.
9. After the Notification of the Rules of the Examination in the Gazette of India by
Ministry of Home Affairs and publication of Notice of Examination by the Commission, the
candidates will have to fill in the application form on-line on the Commission's web-
site(https://upsconline.nic.in) and a hard copy of the same is to be routed through proper
channel to the CISF authorities for verification and onward transmission to the Commission.
The scrutiny of applications for deciding the eligibility of candidates with reference to the
stipulated eligibility conditions will be done by the Central Industrial Security Force. However,
the decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of a candidate and
his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the examination shall be final.
10. The candidates applying for the Examination should ensure that they fulfil all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of
Examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Written Examination,
Physical and Medical Standard Tests or Personality/Interview Tests will be purely provisional
subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time
before or after the Written Examination, Physical and Medical Standard Tests or
Personality/Interview Tests, it is found that they do not fulfil any of eligibility conditions; their
candidature for the Examination will be cancelled.
11. e-Admit Card of the admitted candidates to this Examination will be uploaded on the
Commission's website one week before the date of examination and can be downloaded by the
eligible candidates. No paper e-Admit Card will be issued by the Commission. Candidates shall
not be admitted to the examination unless he/she holds a downloaded e-Admit Card.
12(1) A Candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of:—
(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:-
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct
of the examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated / incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered
with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photo/ signature in the application form in place of
actual photo/signature; or
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the
examination, namely :-
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to
the examination; or
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts;
or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow
examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission
for the conduct of the examination; or
(1) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode), pager
or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive,
smart watches etc. or camera or bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related
accessories (either in working or switched-off mode) capable of being used as a
communication device during the examination; or
(m)violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission
certificates permitting them to take the examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of
the acts specified in the foregoing clauses;
in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the
Commission from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred
either permanently or for a specified period :-
(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;
and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already
in service under Government;
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:-
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as
the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period
allowed for this purpose, into consideration.
12.(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a
candidate(s) in committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at the
clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to action in terms of the clause (n) above.
13.(1) Candidates who obtain such minimum qualifying marks in the written Examination as
may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion shall be summoned for the Physical
Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standard Tests by CISF to check whether
they meet the Physical and Medical Standards specified in Appendix II to these Rules :
13.(2) Commission retains discretion to fix minimum qualifying standards in any or all of the papers
at any stage and retains discretion to evaluate conventional papers of only those candidates who
secure minimum qualifying standards in the objective paper, as may be determined by the Commission
in its discretion.
13.(3)Provided that candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes may be
summoned for the Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency and Medical Standard Tests by applying
relaxed standards if the Commission is of the opinion that sufficient number of candidates from these
categories are not likely to be summoned for the Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and
Medical Standards Tests on the basis of the general standard in written examination in order to fill up
the vacancies reserved for them.
13.(4) Those candidates who meet the prescribed Physical Standards as specified in Appendix II to
these Rules, will be put through Physical Efficiency Test (PET) as indicated below :
PHYSICAL EFFICIENCY TEST (PET)
| | Males | Females |
|:----------|:--------------------------|:----------------------|
| (a) 100 Meters race | In 16 seconds | In 18 Seconds |
| (b) 800 Meters race | In 3 minutes 45 Seconds | In 4 minutes 45 Seconds |
| (c) Long Jump | 3.5 Meters (3 chances) | 3.0 Meters (3 chances) |
| (d) Shot Put (7.26 Kgs.) | 4.5 Meters (3 chances) | |
These Tests will be only of qualifying nature and will not carry any marks. Failure even
in one of these tests will amount to disqualification.
On reporting of female candidates for PST (Physical Standard Test)/PET (Physical
Efficiency Test), a self declaration indicating about her pregnancy status shall be submitted.
In case, if she declares that she is not pregnant then she may be allowed to participate in the
PST/PET. In case of false declaration, all the risk for undergoing PST/PET will be of her
own. If the female candidate declares that she is pregnant before PST/PET, then a
confirmatory pregnancy test to be done and in case she is found to be pregnant, irrespective
of duration of pregnancy, she may be declared temporarily unfit and her appointment shall
be held in abeyance until the confinement is over. The vacancy against which a woman
candidate was selected should be kept reserved for her. She will be re-examined for
PST/PET six weeks after the date of confinement was over, subject to the production of the
medical certificate of fitness from a registered medical practitioner. If she is found fit in
PST/PET & DME, she may be appointed to the post kept reserved for and allow the benefit
of seniority in accordance with the instructions of the Government, as amended from time
to time. In case female candidates are found negative for pregnancy, she may be allowed to
participate in the PST/PET.
It is further provided that the pregnancy and the temporary unfitness due to the same,
will not be a bar for her to appear in the Interview/Personality Test along with other
candidates as per the PT Schedule finalized by the Commission and her absence from the
Interview/PT, will entail cancellation of her candidature for the CISF ACs (Exe) LDCE
2026.
13.(5) Medical Standards Test {consisting of Detailed Medical Examination (DME) & Review
Medical Examination (RME), if required}, to check the standards specified in Appendix-II, will
be conducted only in respect of candidates who are declared qualified in the Physical
Efficiency Tests. Candidates will either be declared “FIT” or “UNFIT” in the Medical
Standard Tests. Those candidates who are declared "UNFIT” during Detailed Medical
Examination (DME) will be allowed to undergo Review Medical Examination (RME),
provided they give their written consent by appending their signature on the intimation
indicating the reasons for being unfit. RME of candidates will be conducted in continuation of
DME preferably on the next day of DME.
13.(6) The Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standard Tests will be
conducted under the supervision of CISF. These tests will be conducted at various centres to be
notified after the results of the written Examination.
13.(7) All candidates declared unfit during Detailed Medical Examination (DME) will submit their
consent for RME in prescribed proforma duly signed by the candidate and the same should be
submitted within 24 hours after he/she is informed of his/her unfitness in DME.
13.(8) Candidates, who are declared qualified in the Medical Standards Tests {consisting of Detailed
Medical Examination (DME) & Review Medical Examination (RME), if required}, will be called for the
Interview/Personality Test to be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission. Candidates, who
are declared unfit during Detailed Medical Examination (DME) will be allowed to undergo Review
Medical Examination (RME), provided they give their written consent by appending their signature on
the intimation indicating the reasons for being unfit. The candidates who are declared medically fit in
DME or RME will be called for Interview/Personality Test. The Interview/Personality Test will carry 200
marks.
13.(9) The Interview/Personality Test would be conducted by a Board of competent and
unbiased persons who will have before them a record of the candidates. The candidate will be
asked questions both in his/her own field as well as matters of general interest to test his/her
awareness and understanding. In broad terms, this will be an assessment of not only his/her
mental calibre but also his/her social traits and integrity of character. The Board would broadly
assess the candidate inter-alia in the following:
(i) Physical Make-up
(a) Appearance
(b) Bearing
(c) Manners and Mannerism
(ii) General Intelligence, Aptitude and Interest
(a) Ability to perceive, analyse and present facts and situation.
(b) Work related aptitudes, like discipline, empathy etc.
(c) Extra-curricular activities-participation in games, sports, debates etc.
(iii) Disposition
(a) Leadership, drive, determination, quick decision making etc.
(b) Self-reliance.
(c) Ability to face stress and crisis.
(d) Courage-moral and physical.
(iv) Behavioural aspect of personality
(a) Inter-personal relations with superiors and subordinates.
(b) Commitment to values, integrity, secular and national orientation.
13. (10) The candidature of such candidates who do not qualify at the Physical
Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests or Medical Standards Tests is liable for cancellation.
14. (1) After the Interview, candidates will be arranged by the Commission in order of merit as
disclosed by the aggregate marks finally awarded to each candidate and in that order so many
candidates as are found by the Commission to be qualified at the Examination shall be
recommended for appointment up to the number of unreserved vacancies decided to be filled on
the results of the examination.
14.(2) The candidates belonging to any of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes may
to the extent of the number of vacancies reserved for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes be recommended by the Commission by a relaxed standard, subject to the fitness of these
candidates for selection to the Post.
Provided that the candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes who
have not availed themselves of any of the concessions or relaxations in the eligibility or the
selection criteria, at any stage of the Examination and who after taking into account the general
qualifying standards are found fit for recommendation by the Commission shall not be
recommended against the vacancies reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Further provided that the candidates who qualify in the order of merit but the results of
whose medical standards test are pending will be recommended provisionally.
Further provided that the final selection of the candidates will be subject to the final
outcome of the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 5877/2022 filed by Diwakar Pande & Ors. Vs.
Ministry of Home Affairs &Ors. in the High Court of Delhi at New Delhi:
14(3) All tie cases shall be resolved in accordance with the ‘Rounding Off Marks' and
'Tie Breaking Principles' produced as below:-
(A) Rounding Off Marks:
Marks obtained by the candidates shall be rounded off up to two decimal digits, at all
stage(s) of the examination, by applying the standard rounding off principle, wherever
applicable. Accordingly, while applying the Tie Breaking Principles, the rounded off marks up
to two decimal digits shall be considered for resolving all tie cases.
(B) Tie Breaking Principle
(i) If the marks in the aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing
more marks in the written total will be ranked higher;
(ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidate securing more marks in “Paper-
I: General Ability & Intelligence and Professional Skill” will be ranked higher;
(iii) If the marks at (i) and (ii) above are also equal, the candidate senior in age will
be ranked higher; and
(iv) In cases where a tie persists even after applying the above tie breaking
principles, it will be resolved at the discretion of the Commission.
15. The form and manner of communication of the result of the Examination to individual
candidates shall be decided by the Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not
enter into correspondence with them regarding the result.
16. A candidate must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect
likely to interfere with the discharge of his/her duties as an officer of the service. A candidate,
who after such medical examination as Government or the appointing authority, as the case
may be, may prescribe, is found not to satisfy these requirements will not be appointed. The
candidate should be in SHAPE-1 medical category during Annual Medical Examination-2025
(should be valid upto August-2026) as specified in CISF Circular No. (145) dated 28.01.2009.
17. The list of finally selected candidates would be forwarded by the Commission to
Ministry of Home Affairs/Directorate General, CISF for issue of offer of appointment to the
post of Assistant Commandants (Executive) for training and medical examination. The
selected candidates shall undergo training at the training centre of the Force and will remain on
probation for a period of two years.
18. No TA/DA/Journey expenses will be allowed to the candidates for attending the Exam
at any stage.
ANAND KUMAR GAUTAM, Under Secy.
APPENDIX-I
Scheme and Syllabus of the Written Examination for the Limited Departmental Competitive
Examination for the post of Assistant Commandants in Central Industrial Security Force
(I) Scheme of Written Examination:
The written Examination to be conducted by Union Public Service Commission will
comprise two papers as follows:
Paper-1 General Ability and Intelligence and Professional Skill, (300 marks) (150
questions) (2½ hours)
This paper will be of Objective Type (Multiple Choice Questions) in which the
questions will be set in English as well as Hindi. The paper will comprise two parts as
follows:-
Part-A: General Ability and Intelligence
(75 Questions) - 150 Marks
Part-B: Professional Skill
(75 Questions) - 150 Marks
Paper II: Essay, Precis Writing and Comprehension - 100 Marks (2 hours)
In this paper, candidates will be allowed the option of writing the Essay Component in English
or in Hindi, but the medium of Précis Writing and Comprehension Components will be English
only.
NOTE-1: Candidates should ensure that in Paper II they write the Answers only in the
Medium allowed by the Commission for the different components as mentioned
above. No credit will be given for answers written in a medium other than the one
allowed in the Paper.
NOTE-2:Candidates will be required to indicate the medium of writing the Essay Component
in the Attendance List and on the Answer Book. No credit will be given for the
Essay Component if the candidate indicates a medium on the Attendance List and
on the Answer Book other than the one in which he/she has written the Essay.
NOTE-3:There will be minimum qualifying marks separately in each Paper as may be fixed by
the Commission.
NOTE-4: The Commission will declare a list of candidates qualified in the written Exam. The
CISF will conduct Physical Efficiency Test first and thereafter the Medical
Efficiency Test of only those candidates will be conducted who are declared
qualified in the Physical Efficiency Test.
NOTE-5: The candidates who qualify in the Medical Examination and Physical Efficiency
Test shall be required to appear for Personality Test/Interview to be conducted by
the Commission.
On completion of above process, a final merit list of candidates shall be prepared and
be sent to the CISF authority for taking further course of action.
(II) Syllabi of the Written Papers:-
Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence and Professional Skill
PART-A: General Ability and Intelligence: The objective type questions with multiple choices
in this paper will broadly cover the following areas:
1. General Mental Ability:
The questions will be designed to test the logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude
including numerical ability and data interpretation.
2. General Science:
The questions will be set to test general awareness, scientific temper, comprehension
and appreciation of scientific phenomena of everyday observation including new areas
of importance like Information Technology, Biotechnology and Environmental
Science.
3. Current Events of National and International Importance:
The questions will test the candidates' awareness of current events of national and
international importance in the broad areas of culture, music, arts, literature, sports,
governance, societal and developmental issues, industry, business, globalisation and
interplay among nations.
4. General Awareness:
The questions shall aim to test candidates' general awareness and would inter-alia
include question to test basic knowledge of history of India, Indian and World
Geography as well as Indian Polity and Economy.
PART-B: Professional Skill
This test will be designed to test professional skills of the candidates in relation to
operational and administrative requirement of the Central Industrial Security Force and
will broadly cover the following areas:
1. CISF related Professional Skills
• Industrial Security;
• Industrial Safety and fire fighting;
• Disaster Management;
• Aviation Security;
• Crime and Intelligence-Espionage, Sabotage, Subversion;
• Perimeter Security;
• Security of vital installations-DAE, Metro Rail, Space; Govt. Buildings, Ports,
Jails;
• Use of Technical Gadgets Alarm, detection, intrusion, Access control, Fire
safety;
• Bomb Detection and Disposal;
• VIP Security;
• Internal Security and Election duties;
• Drone Technology in Security duties;
• Security Consultancy
2. Law
• Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (Sections :35-62 Arrest, 96-110
search and seizure, 148-151 unlawful assembly, 163 urgent cases of nuisance or
apprehended danger, 168-172 preventive action of the police);
• Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (Sections: 2(28) public servant, 14 -44 General
Exceptions, 112-113 Petty organized Crime, Terrorist Act, 152 Act endangering
sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, 171 Undue influence at elections, 189-197
Offences against public tranquility, 286-290 Negligent conduct with respect to
poisonous substance, fire or combustible matter, explosive substance, machinery,
pulling down repairing or constructing buildings etc, 304 Snatching, 303-307 Theft,
316-317 Criminal breach of trust, Stolen property, 324-328 Mischief, 329-334
Criminal Trespass, 351 Criminal Intimidation);
• Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (Sections:2(e) Evidence, 57 & 58 Primary
Evidence and Secondary Evidence);
• Labour Law (Industrial disputes Act, Employees Compensation Act, Trade Union
Act);
• Other Criminal Offences (Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, 1967; Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988; Information Technology Act 2000; Protection of Children
against Sexual Offences Act, 2012);
• Human Rights (Universal Declaration of Human Rights, Constitution of India-
Articles 19, 20, 21 and 22; Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993; The Sexual
Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, prohibition and Redressal) Act,
2013).
3. Computer Skills and Awareness
• Computer Security,
• Basic Computer Operations;
• Basic Hardware and Software;
• Artificial Intelligence
4. Service Rules and and HR Matters
• CCA Rules;
• CISF Act and Rules;
• HR Functions related to CISF
Paper II : Essay, Précis Writing and Comprehension
This paper shall test candidates' ability to bring to fore his/her ideas on the given essay topic,
arrange them in a coherent, orderly, concise, understandable and lucid manner in effective and
grammatically correct language free from spelling errors.
Further, this shall test candidates' ability to understand the given passages for précis-writing and
comprehension and their skills to summarise the précis passage and reply to the short-answered
questions on the comprehension passage.
APPENDIX-II
PHYSICAL AND MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR THE CANDIDATE FOR THE POST OF
ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS IN THE CISF SELECTED THROUGH LIMITED
DEPARTMETNAL COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION-2026
APPENDIX-II (A)
(1) Physical Standards:
The Minimum requirements for the candidate (for all categories) are as follows:
| | Men | Women |
|:----------|:--------------------------|:----------------------|
| Height | 165 cms (Gen & SC) | 157 Cms (Gen & SC) |
| | 162.5 cms (ST) | 154 cms (ST) |
| Chest (unexpanded) | 81 cms | Not applicable |
| | (with 5 cm minimum expansion ) | |
| Weight | Corresponding to height | Corresponding to height |
| Medical | SHAPE-1 | SHAPE-1 |
Moreover, the weight should be as per the height and age as mentioned in APPENDIX-II (B).
(2) Medical Standards:
(a) Eye Sight:
| | Better eye (Corrected vision) | Worse eye (Corrected vision) |
|:---------------|:-------------------------------|:-----------------------------|
| Distant Vision | 6/6 | 6/12 |
| | OR | |
| | 6/9 | 6/9 |
| Near vision | JI (corrected) | J2 (corrected) |
The candidate should not have squint of any degree and should have high colour
vision. The candidate will be tested for colour vision by Ishahara's test as well as Edridge-
Green Lantern Test. Eyes should be bright, clear with no abnormality/disease. Movements of
eyeballs should be full and free in all direction. In every case of Myopia, fundus examination
should be carried out and the results should be recorded. Contact lenses or laser surgery is not
allowed.
(b) Carrying angle: Carrying angle should not be more than 15° for male and 20° for
female.
(c) Ear: i) Candidate should not have any degree of deafness or persistent ear discharge
ii) Candidate should not have any other condition (congenital or acquired) like
atresia of the meatus, exostosis, neoplasm which is causing obstruction of
ear passage and should not have history or recurrent earache, tinnitus and
vertigo.
(d) Nose: Candidate should not have DNS, atrophic rhinitis, tubercular, ulceration,
chronic sinusitis.
(e) Neck: Candidate should not have enlarged lymph nodes, thyroid or other swelling
of neck, inability to extend the neck fully or any evidence of disease of spine or cervical
vertebrae.
(f)Teeth: Candidate must possess sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient
mastication. Candidate should not have severe pyorrhea.
(g) Venereal Disease: Candidate should not have active signs of clinical VD.
(h) Chronic skin diseases: Candidate should not have chronic skin diseases like
Leprosy, chronic dermatitis, extensive Pityriasis Versicolor, psoriasis, SLE etc.
(3) General Standards:
a) Speech should be without impediment i.e. no stammering.
b) The candidate should not have any indication of chronic disease like TB, any type
of arthritis, high blood pressure, Diabetes, Bronchial Asthma, any heart disease.
c) Candidate should not have perceptible and visible glandular swelling anywhere in
the body.
d) Chest should be well formed, devoid of any abnormality like flat chest, pigeon
chest, with rickety rosary defects. Heart and lungs should be sound.
e) Limbs, hands and feet should be well formed and fully developed and there shall
be perfect motion of all joints.
f) Should not have any old/mal united fracture of bones.
g) There should be free and perfect movements of all the joints.
h) Feet and toes should be well formed.
i) Should not have congenital malformation or defects.
j) Should not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to any
impaired constitution.
k) Candidate should have no disease of the genito-urinary tract.
l) Candidate should have no inguinal, scrotal swelling, any type of Hernia.
m) (Only for male) Both the testicles are in the scrotum and of normal size.
n) The candidate must not have knock knees, flat foot, varicose veins.
o) They must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect
likely to interfere with the efficient performance of the duties.
(4) Candidate should not suffer from TACHYCARDIA (more than 100 pulse rate per
minute) or BRADYCARDIA (less than 50 per minute).
(5) Candidate should not suffer from Hernia, hemorrhoids, condylomata prolapse rectum.
Note:1. Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniform guidelines issued
by MHA UO dated 20.05.2015 for recruitment of GO's and NGO's in the CAPFS
& AR and Review Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniforms
guidelines for RME in CAPFs & ARs for GO's & NGO's vide MHA UO No.E-
32012/ADG (Med)/DME&RME/DA-1/2020 (Part File)/ 1166 dated 31.05.2021.
2. Candidates will either be declared "FIT" or "UNFIT" in the Medical Standard
Tests. Those candidates who are declared 'UNFIT' in the Medical Standard Tests
will be allowed to appear before the Review Medical Board preferably on next day
of Detail Medical Examination.
APPENDIX-II (B)
Male Average Body Weights in Kilograms for different Age Groups and Heights
| Height in CMS | Age in years | | | |
|:--------------|:------------|:------------|:------------|:------------|
| | 18-22 | 23-27 | 28-32 | 33-37 |
| 156 | 44-54 | 46-56 | 47-58 | 48-59 |
| 158 | 45-55 | 47-57 | 48.5-59.5 | 49.5-60.5 |
| 160 | 46-56 | 47.7-58.5 | 49.5-60.5 | 50.5-61.5 |
| 162 | 47-58 | 49-60 | 50.5-61.5 | 52-63 |
| 164 | 48-59 | 50-61 | 52-63.5 | 53-65 |
| 166 | 49.5-60.5 | 51.5-62.5 | 53-65 | 54.5-66.5 |
| 168 | 51-62 | 52.5-64.5 | 54.5-66.5 | 56-68 |
| 170 | 52-64 | 54-66 | 56-68 | 57.5-70.5 |
| 172 | 54-66 | 55.5-67.5 | 57-70 | 59-72 |
| 174 | 55-67 | 57-70 | 59-72 | 61-74.5 |
| 176 | 56.5-69 | 58.5-71.5 | 60.5-73.5 | 62-76 |
| 178 | 57.5-70.5 | 60-73 | 61.5-75.5 | 63.5-77.5 |
| 180 | 59-72 | 61-75 | 63.5-77.5 | 65.5-80 |
| 182 | 61-74.5 | 62.5-76.5 | 65-79 | 66.5-81.5 |
| 184 | 63-77 | 64.5-78.5 | 66.5-81.5 | 68.5-83.5 |
| 186 | 63.5-77.5 | 65.5-80.5 | 68-83 | 70-86 |
| 188 | 65-79 | 67.5-82.5 | 70-85.5 | 71.5-87.5 |
| 190 | 66-81 | 68.5-83.5 | 70.5-86.5 | 72.5-88.5 |
Female Average body Weights in Kilograms for Different Age Group and Heights
| Height in CMS | Age in years | | | |
|:--------------|:------------|:------------|:------------|:------------|
| | 18-22 | 23-27 | 28-32 | 33-37 |
| 148 | 34.5-42.5 | 37-45 | 38.5-47 | 39.5-48.5 |
| 150 | 36.5-44.5 | 37.5-45.5 | 39-48 | 40.5-49.5 |
| 153 | 38-46 | 39-48 | 41-50 | 42-51 |
| 155 | 38.5-47.5 | 40-49 | 41.5-50.5 | 43-52.5 |
| 158 | 40.5-49.5 | 42-51 | 43-53 | 44.5-54.5 |
| 160 | 41.5-50.5 | 43-52.5 | 44-54 | 45.5-54.5 |
| 163 | 43-52.5 | 44-54 | 46-56 | 47-57 |
| 165 | 44-54 | 45.5-55.5 | 47-58 | 48.5-59.5 |
| 168 | 45-55 | 47-57 | 48.5-59.5 | 49.5-60.5 |
The body weights are given in this chart corresponding to only certain heights
(in cms). In respect of height in between, the principle of ‘Average' may be utilized for
calculating body weights.
For calculating average weight beyond the heights tabulated, 0.71 Kg for every one cm
of increase or decrease in height may be added or subtracted respectively.
Uploaded by Dte. of Printing at Government of India Press, Ring Road, Mayapuri, New Delhi-110064
and Published by the Controller of Publications, Delhi-110054.